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1)

(a) We establish our Mishnah, which holds that corn can never reach the stage when it becomes Chayav Terumah on Yom-Tov, like Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah.
What does he say with regard to someone who brought in corn in its stalks ...

1. ... to make a dough?
2. ... to roll in his hands?

(b) Which point does Rebbi dispute?

(c) What is Rebbi's reason?

(d) What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah learn from 'Degancha'?

(a) Eventually, we conclude that, when our Mishnah says with regard to Terumah, 'Eino Zakai be'Haramasah', it means *most* cases of Terumah. Why are we forced to say that? How can corn become Chayav Terumah on Yom-Tov even according to Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(b) Do we still need to abide by our original explanation, establishing our Mishnah (where Beis Shamai said that we do not find that Terumah becomes Chayav Terumah on Yom-Tov), like Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah?

(a) Abaye confines the Machlokes Tana'im to corn, but by legumes, even Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah will agree that they can easily become Chayav Terumah on Yom-Tov.
How is that? Why is that the case?

(b) The Mishnah in Terumos states that if someone had bundles of Tilsan (a kind of legume) of Tevel, he pounds them and gives Ma'asros on the amount of seed he assesses to be there, and not on the stalks. (We will soon see why one ought to be Chayav Ma'asros on the stalks, too).
On what grounds is he exempt?

(c) How do we attempt to prove Abaye's statement from the Mishnah in Terumos?

(d) We conclude that the author of the Mishnah is really Rebbi.
In that case, why does he confine his statement to Tilsan, and not even to all kinds of grain?

(a) In the second Lashon, how does Abaye amend his previous statement?

(b) What is his reason?

(c) How will Abaye in this Lashon explain the Mishnah in Terumos, which clearly holds that bundles of Tilsan must be Ma'asered? Why is that?

(d) In that case (seeing as it is Tevel anyway), why does one need to beat them before giving Ma'aser? Let the Levi say to the Kohen 'Just as I received them, so I am handing them to you'?

(a) What must a Ben Levi do, before giving Terumas Ma'aser to a Kohen, if, before they reached the stage of Goren, he received ...

1. ... corn?
2. ... grapes?
3. ... olives?

(b) We established the Mishnah in Terumos (regarding bundles of Tilsan) by a Ben Levi who received Ma'aser Rishon before the crops had reached the stage of Chiyuv Terumah.
What Kashya does this present on the Lashon 'u'Mechashev' with regard to assessing on what he needs to give Terumas Ma'aser?

(c) Why would this not be a problem if we were speaking of a Yisrael giving Terumah?

(d) We resolve this problem by establishing the Beraisa like Aba Elazar ben Gimel. What does Aba Elazar ben Gimel learn from the Pasuk in Korach "ve'Nechshav Lachem *Terumaschem*, *ka'Dagan min ha'Goren* ... "?

6)

(a) Resh Lakish has just taught us that if the Levi receives Ma'aser *before* the crops have reached the stage of Miru'ach, the crops have a Din of Tevel, as regards Terumas Ma'aser.
Why is that?

(b) What exactly will the Kohen lose if the Levi receives his Ma'aser when the crops are still in their stalks?

(c) What do we learn from the Pasuk "mi'Kol Matnoseichem Tarimu es Kol Terumas Hashem"?

(d) How do we know that the Kohen receives his regular Terumah in the latter case, and not in the former? Perhaps it should be the other way round? (See Tosfos DH 'u'Mah Ra'isa'.)

(a) We learned in a Mishnah in Ma'asros that one is permitted to peel barley-kernels one by one and eat them raw.
What is one not permitted to do without Ma'asering them?

(b) Rebbi Elazar says 've'Chein le'Shabbos.
What does this mean?

(c) On what grounds do we object to that statement?

(d) So we amend the statement ('ve'Chein le'Shabbos') to refer to the Seifa of the Beraisa.
What does the Seifa say?

(a) The Goren (to reach the stage of Ma'asros) by squashes and pumpkins is when one has removed the flowery substance (which falls off automatically when they become dry) from their top.
What is the Goren, if one did not remove them?

(b) How do we prove from here that, although one would expect the Halachos of Shabbos to be more stringent than those of Ma'asros, this is not necessarily the case in these areas of Halachah?

(c) From where do we learn this leniency with respect to Shabbos?

(a) We learned earlier that one is permitted to roll the wheat-kernels on Yom-Tov to remove the outer husk. Is this permitted outright?

(b) Abaye quoting Rav Yosef permits rolling them from the thumb to the forefinger.
How does Rav Ivya quote Rav Yosef?

(c) Rava is the most lenient of all. What does *he* say?

(d) What did they do when Rav Ada quoted Rav as saying that one may only use the tips of one's fingers when blowing the chaff away? What *is* the Halachah in this regard?