Previous daf

1)

(a) According to the Gemara's first contention (Rabah) on what grounds did Chazal forbid Toveling utensils ...

1. ... on Shabbos?
2. ... on Yom-Tov?

(b) Why did they forbid even someone who has a Mikvah on his property (and does not need to carry his utensils) to Tovel them?

(c) Seeing as Chazal decreed one case because of the other (as we have just seen), why did they not forbid Hashakah because of Tevilah?

(a) The Beraisa permits Toveling a Tamei bucket by using it to draw water from a well.
Why is this any different than Toveling Tamei water in a Tamei vessel, which our Mishnah forbids?

(b) Why do we not decree Tevilah using this method, because one may come to Tovel the bucket directly?

(c) Why, if one is not permitted to Tovel a vessel which became Tamei *before* Yom-Tov, is one permitted to Tovel one which became Tamei *on* Yom- Tov? Why did Chazal not decree one because of the other?

(d) But what is the point of Toveling it on Yom-Tov anyway? Surely it requires Ha'arev Shemesh (waiting until nightfall before using it)?

(a) In which case will it be permitted to Tovel *on* Yom-Tov, a vessel that became Tamei *before* Yom-Tov?

(b) Why did Chazal not decree a vessel that became Tamei through a *V'lad* ha'Tum'ah because of one that became Tamei through an *Av* ha'Tum'ah?

(c) What are the two explanations of 'Kohanim Zerizin Heim' (in this context)?

(d) They also permitted a Nidah who has no spare clothes, to 'cheat' and Tovel on Yom-Tov in her clothes, even if, at the same time, she Tovels her clothes.
Why did they not forbid a Nidah when she has *no spare clothes* for fear that when she *has*, she may Tovel the clothes outright?

(a) Rav Yosef explains the reason for the prohibition of Toveling vessels (which means 'clothes' in his opinion) on Shabbos because one may come to squeeze out one's clothes. Rav Bibi gives a third explanation, which is borne out by a Beraisa.
What does he say?

(b) According to Rava, the reason for the prohibition on Toveling vessels is because it resembles making a vessel (since effectively, one is making the vessel fit for use). In that case, why does Beis Hillel permit the Tevilah of a person?

(c) Does this mean that he is forbidden to Tovel in dirty water, in which one does not usually bathe?

5)

(a) Is one forbidden then, to Tovel in dirty water during the winter months?

(b) But why is this permitted even on Yom-Kipur, when it is forbidden to enter the water to cool oneself, and it is evident that he is only doing so in order to Tovel?

(a) The Mishnah in Shabbos permits a man with tooth-ache to dip his food in vinegar on Shabbos and eat it, but not to sip it directly.
What does the Beraisa say?

(b) Abaye establishes our Mishnah when he sips it and spits it out (which conforms with the Beraisa).
How does Rava reconcile the Mishnah with the Beraisa, even if the Mishnah speaks about swallowing the vinegar?

(c) What is now the problem with Rava? How does this clash with what he just said with regard to Yom Kipur?

(d) We answer that Rava retracted from one of his statements.
From which ruling of his did he retract? How do we know with certainty from which ruling he retracted.

(a) In a Beraisa, Rebbi says that one may not Tovel a vessel together with the water that it contains, and one may not make Hashakah, either.
What do the Rabbanan hold?

(b) What is the problem with this from our Mishnah?

(c) We establish our Mishnah like Rebbi, in which case, our Mishnah speaks by Yom-Tov.
How does this reconcile the Mishnah with his words?

(d) Alternatively, we establish it like the Rabbanan, in which case, our Mishnah speaks about Shabbos.
How will this reconcile the Mishnah with their words?