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1)

(a) According to Resh Lakish Rav Acha bar Ya'akov forbid inviting a Nochri to partake of a piece of lung.
Why is that?

(b) Then why is a Yisrael permitted to eat it?

(c) How did Rav Papa intend to query Rav Acha bar Ya'akov?

(d) What made him change his mind?

(a) The Beraisa discusses someone who wishes to eat fresh, healthy meat from an animal that has just been Shechted.
From which part of the animal does the Tana suggest he takes?

(b) Besides salting it well, he must also wash it well. Why is that?

(c) Why must he wait until it dies before eating it?

(d) What does the Tana add that negates the previous ruling of Rav Acha bar Ya'akov?

4)

(a) What does our Mishnah say about ...

1. ... a bloodless Shechitah?
2. ... eating from such an animal with Tamei hands?

(b) Rebbi Shimon says that even if there is no blood, the animal, Chayah or bird is nevertheless Muchshar Lekabeil Tum'ah. How?

(c) Our Mishnah implies that if blood did spill from the neck, the animal would indeed become Tamei through contact with the hands of the Shochet.
What level of Tum'ah would the meat then be?

(d) What Kashya do we ask on this?

(a) The previous problem would not exist if the Tana was referring to Kodshim (where there is a Shelishi and even a Revi'i).
How do we know that he is not, from the fact that he talks about Beheimah, Chayah va'Of?

(b) We also know that he is not, because he validates a bloodless Shechitah, whereas by Kodshim, the blood is crucial for the Zerikah.
What further proof do we have from the inference 'Ha Yatz'a Meihen Dam, Ein Ne'echalin ... '? What did Rebbi Chiya bar Aba Amar Rebbi Yochanan say about the blood of Kodshim?

(c) How does he learn this from the Pasuk in Re'ei "al ha'Aretz Tishpechenu ka'Mayim"?

(d) And we bring a final proof that the Mishnah cannot be talking about Kodshim, from the fact that when there is no blood, the animal is not Muchshar Lekabeil Tum'ah.
What problem do we have with that?

6)

(a) Rav Nachman solves our Kashya (regarding a Shelishi by Chulin) by establishing our Mishnah by Chulin which one purchased with the money of Ma'aser Sheini, but not according to Rebbi Meir. Rebbi Meir in the Mishnah in Parah, rules that someone who is Tamei mi'de'Rabbanan is Metamei Kodesh and Posel Terumah.
What is the difference between the two terms?

(b) What does he say about Chulin and Ma'aser?

(c) What do the Chachamim say about Ma'aser?

(a) What objection does Rav Shimi bar Ashi raise with Rav Nachman's answer, based on the Lashon 'va'Chachamim Osrin'? What does 'Osrin' imply?

(b) How does Rav Shimi bar Ashi know that our Mishnah is speaking about touching the meat, and not just eating it?

(c) So Rav Papa establishes our Mishnah according to Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar in a Beraisa.
What does the Tana Kama there mean when he says 'Ein Yadayim Techilos le'Chulin'?

(d) What does Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar mean when he says ...

1. ... 'Yadayim Techilos le'Chulin'? Does it mean that they are not Techilos for Terumah?
2. ... 'Sheniyos li'Terumah'?

(a) According to the Chachamim in the Mishnah in Yadayim, hands are always Sheniyos.
Who is the Tana who holds that by a house that is stricken with Tzara'as, they are Techilos?

(b) If the Chachamim hold, in the previous case, that Chazal decreed hands by a Bayis ha'Menuga because of hands elsewhere, what does Rebbi Akiva hold?

(c) What will both Tana'im hold with regard to 'Bi'ah be'Miktzas'?

(a) Why does Rav Papa establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar and not like Rebbi Akiva, according to whom hands can be Techilos?

(b) What does Rebbi Akiva Dracaena in the Mishnah in Pesachim from the Pasuk in Shemini (in connection with a loaf that becomes a Sheini in an earthenware oven) "ve'Chol K'li Cheres ... Yitma", from the future tense used by the Pasuk?

(c) What is the Tana referring to when he states that Rebbi Akiva made this D'rashah 'Bo ba'Yom'?

(d) Then why did Rav Papa decline to establish our Mishnah like Rebbi Akiva, even assuming that the hands are Sheniyos?

(a) Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Hoshaya establishes our Mishnah by Chulin She'Na'asu al Taharas Hekdesh, not like the opinion of Rebbi Yehoshua.
Why does Rebbi Yehoshua say that Chulin She'Na'asu al Taharas Hekdesh La'av ke'Kodesh Dami?

(b) What does Rebbi Eliezer say in the Mishnah in Taharos about someone who eats a food that is ...

1. ... a Rishon?
2. ... a Sheini?
3. ... a Shelishi?

(c) How much must one eat for this Tum'ah to take effect?

(d) What would be the Din if one were to touch the same food?

(a) What does Rebbi Yehohua say regarding someone who eats a Rishon or a Sheini?

(b) If he eats a Shelishi, he becomes a Sheini with regard to Kodesh.
What if he touches Terumah?

(c) Does this mean that he is then permitted to eat Terumah?

(d) What sort of Chulin food must Rebbi Yehoshua be talking about, for there to be a Shelishi at all?

(a) What does 'Chulin she'Na'asu al Taharas Terumah/Hekdesh' mean?

(b) Why did Rebbi Elazar then not rather establish our Mishnah by Chulin she'Na'asu al Taharas Terumah, like Rebbi Yehoshua (than by Chulin she'Na'asu al Taharas Hekdesh, not like Rebbi Yehoshua)?

(c) Why will there be no problem with establishing our Mishnah like Rebbi Eliezer?

(d) By the same token, why would anyone declare a Kedushas Hekdesh on a Chayah (which the Tana inserts [and which was actually one of the problems which sparked off the current discussion]), seeing as a Chayah is not subject to Hekdesh?

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