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1)

(a) In another Beraisa, the Tana Kama sentences someone who eats two Gid ha'Nashehs from two different animals, to two sets of Malkos.
What does he mean by 'two Gid ha'Nashehs from two different animals'? Like which Tana does he hold?

(b) Rebbi Yehudah himself however, disagrees with that ruling.
What does *he* say?

(c) Why can the Beraisa not be speaking when he ate one Gid after the other with two warnings?

(d) What does Rav Yosef try to prove from there?

(a) How do we refute Rav Yosef's proof? How can we establish the Beraisa even in a case where he ate the Gidin one after the other and still reconcile this with Rebbi Yehudah's opinion?

(b) Why can the Mishnah not be speaking when neither Gid comprises a 'k'Zayis?

(c) What does the Tana Kama then hold?

(a) Four times a year our Mishnah obligates someone who sells a Kasher animal to inform the purchaser that he already sold its mother or its child.
Why is he Chayav on those occasions, and not during the rest of the year?

(b) One of those occasions is Erev Shemini Atzeres (i.e. Hosha'ana Rabah). What is the reason for that?

(c) If two of the three remaining days are Erev Pesach and Erev Shavu'os, what is the third occasions?

(d) What fifth day does the Tana add according to Rebbi Yossi Hagelili in the Galil? What do the other Tana'im hold there (see Tosfos DH 'u'che'Divrei')?

(a) How does Rebbi Yehudah qualify the above ruling? In which case is the seller not obligated to inform the purchaser that he already sold the animal's mother or child?

(b) Under which circumstances does even Rebbi Yehudah concede that he nevertheless remains obligated to do so?

(c) What other ruling does our Mishnah issue with regard to the above four occasions?

(d) What monetary repercussions does this ruling have regarding the purchaser?

(a) To what extent is someone who buys an animal on any of the four specified dates obligated to make inquiries as to whether the owner already sold the mother or the child of the animal earlier that day?

(b) What is the significance of the fact that the Tana refers to having sold the mother to the Chasan and the child to the Kalah (and not vice-versa)?

(c) Bearing in mind that money does not acquire, what problem do we have with the latter ruling (that which renders the purchaser liable to lose his Dinar should the animal die)?

(d) How do we know that the Tana is speaking in a case where he did not make a Kinyan (in spite of Rav Huna Amar Rav, who tries to establish the Mishnah when he did indeed, perform Meshichah)?

(a) Consequently, Rav Shmuel bar Rav Yitzchak establishes the Mishnah where the owner appointed a third person to acquire the Dinar's-worth of the animal on behalf of the purchaser.
How does that explain the difference between the ruling on the four special says and that during the rest of the year?

(b) Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Mishnah when no Kinyan was made other than the money that the purchaser paid the seller.
How does he then explain the difference between the four special occasions and the rest of the year?

(c) Rebbi Yochanan follows his own reasoning, that although min ha'Torah, paying for an article acquires it, the Rabbanan decreed that it should not.
What is ...

1. ... the source for the Torah law?
2. ... the reason for the Rabbanan's decree?

(a) How does our Mishnah define the day with regard to 'Oso v'Es Beno'?

(b) ben Zoma learns it from a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Yom Echad" "Yom Echad". From where does he learn it?

(c) Why, if not for the 'Gezeirah-Shavah', might we have thought that the night ought to follow the day?

(d) Where by Kodshim, does the night follow the day?

(e) What additional D'rashah does Rebbi Darshen from "Yom Echad" of Oso v'Es Beno?

8)

(a) Seeing as Kisuy ha'Dam has nothing to do with the land, why does our Mishnah find it necessary to inform us that it applies even in Chutz la'Aretz, and even not in the time of the Beis Hamikdash?

(b) To which kind of animals does it apply?

(c) What is the basic difference between this Mitzvah and that of Shilu'ach ha'Kein?

(a) Why does the Tana need to inform us that the blood of a Coy requires Kisuy?

(b) And what does he say about Shechting it on Yom-Tov?

(a) What does Rebbi Zeira learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "Ve'shachat es Damo Ve'chisahu *be'Afar*"?

(b) Based on Rebbi Zeira's D'rashah, what would be the problem with Shechting a Korban Of, and covering its blood, assuming that one ...

1. ... negates the earth that one spreads underneath the bird?
2. ... does not negate the earth that one spreads underneath the bird?

(c) What does Rebbi Yonasan ben Yosef in a Beraisa, say about someone who Shechts ...

1. ... a Chayah and then a Beheimah (so that the blood of the latter covers the former)?
2. ... a Beheimah and then a Chayah (so that the blood of the Chayah is on top)?

(d) Then why should one not also cover the blood of a Korban Of on top, even though one is not able to spread earth underneath?

(a) We suggest another way of covering the blood of a Korban Of, based on a Mishnah later in the Perek. The Tana there rules that blood that sticks to the Shechitah knife is subject to Kisuy ha'Dam. How would one achieve that?

(b) By the same token, one can do that to the blood of a Chatas ha'Of. Then what does the Tana mean when he says 'Aval Lo be'Mukdashin'?

(c) Why are Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis not subject to Kisuy ha'Dam?

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