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1)

(a) What does the Mishnah say later in a case where the Sheliach is unable to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?

(b) Why can the Tana not be referring to a Cheresh whom the husband appointed a Sheli'ach?

(c) Why are a Cheresh, Shotah or Katan not qualified to bring a Get?

(d) So how does Rav Yosef establish that Mishnah?

(a) How does this Mishnah create a problem for Rabah?

(b) We answer that the Mishnah is speaking after they learned to write a Get Li'shmah.
Then why is a Sheli'ach who is able to speak obligated to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?

(c) On what grounds are we then lenient in the case of a Pike'ach she'Nischaresh?

(d) We then ask from a woman who brings her own Get, which is certainly most unusual, yet she is required to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '. How can the woman be a Sheli'ach to transport her own Get? Why is she not divorced as soon as she receives it?

(a) Why *is* a woman who brings her own Get required to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' seeing as it is unusual?

(b) So why do we not apply the same S'vara when a Pike'ach she'Nischaresh is the Sheli'ach?

(c) And on what grounds do we then absolve a husband who bring his wife's Get from saying 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?

(a) When Shmuel asked Rav Huna whether two Sheluchim who brought a Get from overseas are required to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' or not, he replied in the negative.
What was his reason for this?

(b) How do we establish Rav Huna's ruling according to Rabah? Why are we not concerned that the Get may not have been written Li'shmah?

(c) Then why is one Sheli'ach required to make it?

(d) Then why should two Sheluchim not also be required to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav' for the same reason?

(a) What does the Tana of a Beraisa say in the case of a Get that was brought by a Sheli'ach who did not say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?

(b) How do we initially explain the Tana's statement 'Hevi Lo Hutzrechu Lomar be'Fanai Nichtav ... Lehachmir Ela Lehakeil'?

(a) Even though, according to Rabah, the Tana is speaking after they learned how to write a Get Li'shmah, why do we nevertheless not make them declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' because of the possibility that the circumstances may revert to what they were?

(b) Then how do we explain the reason given by the Tana 'Hevi Lo Hutzrechu Lomar be'Fanai Nichtav ... Lehachmir Ela Lehakeil' (and not 'Mishum de'Niseis')?

(c) Why in fact, are we not stringent in the case of a married woman?

7)

(a) We establish that Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi and Rebbi Yochanan argue the same Machlokes as Rabah and Rava. When Rebbi Shimon bar Aba came before Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi with a Get that he brought from Medinas ha'Yam, and asked whether he needs to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ', what did the latter reply? How does his reply resolve our She'eilah?

(b) What problem do we nevertheless have with Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi's ruling?

(c) Does this Kashya have any bearing on our proof that Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi holds like Rabah?

(a) How do we resolve our problem regarding the Kashya 've'Ha Rabah Is Lei de'Rava'?

(b) Why was the second witness omitted when the episode was related?

(a) Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi and Rebbi Yochanan also argue over how many people need to be present when the Sheli'ach hands over the Get and makes his declaration.
What did Rebbi Yochanan instruct Ravin bar Rav Chisda to do when he came before him with a Get from overseas? What will Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi then hold?

(b) On what basis do we suggest that their Machlokes is tied up with the Machlokes between Rabah and Rava.
What makes us think that Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi, who requires three people, will hold like Rava?

(c) We reject this theory on two scores, one of them because Rabah too, agrees with Rava's reason of 'Le'fi she'Ein Eidim Metzuyin Lekaymo' (in which case, Rebbi Yochanan will agree with it too).
What is the other objection?

(a) So we suggest that they argue over whether 'Sheli'ach Na'aseh Eid ve'Eid Na'aseh Dayan' or not.
What exactly does this mean?

(b) What will then be the opinion of ...

1. ... Rebbi Yochanan?
2. ... Rebbi Yehoshua ben Levi?

(c) On what grounds do we refute this suggestion?

(d) We finally base their Machlokes on the occasions that a woman brings the Get.
What in fact, is the basis of their Machlokes?

(a) Rebbi Meir in a Beraisa rules that if a Sheli'ach brings a Get from overseas, and forgets to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ', the Get is Pasul and the children are Mamzeirim.
Why is that?

(b) What do the Rabbanan say one should do? In front of how many people should the Sheli'ach then hand it to the woman?

(a) When bar Hedya, who had been appointed a Sheli'ach to take a Get to another town, came before Rebbi Achi in his town, the latter told him to attend the writing of the Get from beginning to end.
Why did bar Hedya come before Rebbi Achi? What was the latter's function with regard to Gitin?

(b) Why was such an appointment necessary?

(a) What did Rav Ami and Rav Asi (see Rashash) subsequently tell bar Hedya when he informed them what Rebbi Achi had said?

(b) Why would one even be ill-advised to go le'Chumra in this regard?

(c) What did Rebbi Elazar reply when Rabah bar bar Chanah asked him about a Get, half of which was written in his presence and half of which was not?

(d) Rav Ashi is even more lenient.
What does he say?

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