Previous daf

1)

(a) We just resolved the discrepancies in Rebbi Meir.
How will we resolve Rebbi Yehudah, who decrees Shogeg on account of Meizid by Isurim d'Oraysa, with his ruling permitting someone who planted a tree in Shevi'is to retain it?

(b) What did that man from Rebbi Yehudah's town reply to the man who called him a Ger, son of a Giyores?

(a) What is the difference between the payment of someone who ate Terumah be'Shogeg and someone who ate it be'Meizid?

(b) What is the source for the former Din?

(c) What does the Beraisa require someone who ate Terumah Temei'ah be'Shogeg to pay?

(d) In the event that he paid Chulin Temei'in, Sumchus Mishum Rebbi Meir rules 'be'Shogeg Tashlumav Tashlumin, be'Meizid Ein Tashlumav Tashlumin'. What do the Chachamim say?

(a) Having already payed once, why is the one who ate Terumah be'Shogeg obligated to pay again?

(b) What problem do we have with this K'nas? Why does it appear senseless to penalize him?

(c) We therefore amend the Beraisa.
According to the new version, what *does* he pay for eating Terumah Temei'ah be'Shogeg?

(d) In which case do Rebbi Meir and the Rabbanan then argue?

(a) What does Rebbi Meir mean when he says 'be'Meizid Ein Tashlumav Tashlumin'?

(b) What is then the basis of the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and the Chachamim?

(c) Seeing as min'ha'Torah he was Yotze with the first payment, and the second payment is only a K'nas mi'de'Rabbanan, why does Rebbi Meir not decree here Shogeg Atu Meizid like he does by Metamei, Medamei and Menasech?

(a) What is the Din Torah if the blood of a Korban that became Tamei was sprinkled on the Mizbei'ach? Is the Korban Kasher?

(b) What does the Beraisa (whose author might be Rebbi Meir) say if the Kohen sprinkled it be'Meizid? Does this mean that the owner does not have a Kaparah?

(c) Why does Rebbi Meir not decree Shogeg Atu Meizid here?

(d) We give the same answer regarding the Mishnah in Terumos 'ha'Me'aser be'Shabbos be'Shogeg Yochal, be'Meizid Lo Yochal', and the Mishnah there 'ha'Matbil Keilim be'Shabbos, be'Shogeg Yishtamesh Bahem ... '.
Which Isur is involved here in the case of ...

1. ... 'ha'Me'aser be'Shabbos'?
2. ... 'ha'Matbil Keilim be'Shabbos?

6)

(a) Why are Perech-nuts of Orlah not Bateil even in a thousand? Is this d'Oraysa or mi'de'Rabbanan?

(b) Would they become Bateil if they were to break and fall into Heter by themselves?

(c) According to Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah, if the owner broke them, even be'Shogeg, and they fell into the Heter, they would not become Bateil. What does be'Shogeg mean?

(d) What do Rebbi Yossi and Rebbi Shimon say?

(a) Bearing in mind that the non-Bitul of Perech-nuts is mi'de'Rabbanan, why does Rebbi Yehudah decree Shogeg on account of Meizid?

(b) What is the Shiur Bitul of Orlah and K'lai ha'Kerem?

(c) Why is a growing tree of Orlah not Bateil in even more than that?

(d) On what condition does the Tana Kama permit fruit that is subsequently picked from it (Bedieved)? Why is it Bateil?

(a) Rebbi Yossi is more lenient than the Tana Kama of the Mishnah in Orlah.
What does he say?

(b) How do we reconcile Rebbi Yossi here with Rebbi Yossi in the Beraisa of Perech-nuts, who said 'be'Meizid Lo Ya'alu'?

(c) What did Ravin Amar Rebbi Yochanan say?

(a) Are Kohanim who render someone's Korban, Pigul, obligated to pay?

(b) What does the Beraisa say about someone who is working with his friend in Taharos or Kodshei Mizbei'ach, and tells him that the Taharos had become Tamei or thea Kodshim Pigul?

(c) According to Abaye, the difference between this case and a similar case, but where he referred to the Taharos or the Kodshim of a previous day, and where he is not believed - is the fact that the latter is no longer 'be'Yado'.
What does Rava say? In which point does he disagree with Abaye?

(d) Rebbi Ami thought to say like Abaye.
What did Rebbi Yochanan quoting Rebbi Yossi say to him? What source did Rebbi Yitzchak bar Bisna cite for this?

(a) We refute the proof from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos (regarding the Avodah on Yom-Kipur) "ve'Chol Adam Lo Yihyeh be'Ohel Mo'ed", in spite of which he is believed to say that he was Mefagel one of the Korbanos, by suggesting that perhaps they heard him stating the Pigul.
On what grounds do we reject this counter-proof?

(b) How do we finally reinstate the counter-proof? What is the Pishpesh?

(a) What did Rebbi Ami ...

1. ... ask the Sofer who claimed that he had failed to write the Holy Names in the Sefer-Torah that he had written for so-and-so, Lishman?
2. ... subsequently rule when the Sofer replied that the Sefer was already in the hands of the purchaser?
3. ... reply to Rebbi Yirmiyah, who asked on what basis he should lose the remuneration for the entire Sefer, and not just for the Names?

(b) Why can one not simply overwrite the Names of Hashem to render the Sefer-Torah Kasher?

(c) This is based on a Machlokes in a Beraisa, in which Rebbi Yehudah and the Chachamim argue over someone who wrote Yehudah (but omitted the 'Vav') when he should have written Hashem's Name.
What ...

1. ... does Rebbi Yehudah say there?
2. ... do the Chachamim say?

(d) Why might Rebbi Ami's ruling even follow the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah?
Why is our case worse than that of the Beraisa?

(a) What did Rebbi Avahu rule when a Sofer claimed that in the course of preparing the Sefer-Torah that he had written for so-and-so, he had not made the G'vilin (the parchment) Lishman?

(b) Would Rebbi Ami agree with Rebbi Avahu's ruling?

Next daf