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1)

(a) Rebbi Zeira initially explains that the Tana forbids Bi'ah (marriage) on Motza'ei Shabbos because of Cheshbonos.
What does this mean? From where do we learn this prohibition?

(b) What is the problem with Rebbi Zeira's explanation?

(c) What do the following have in common: Mitzvah calculations; undertaking to give Tzedakah; looking into communal needs; Piku'ach Nefesh?

(d) Is one also permitted on Shabbos ...

1. ... to arrange a Shiduch for one's son or daughter?
2. ... to arrange with a Rebbe to teach one's son Torah?
3. ... to employ a tutor to teach him a trade?

(a) What reason then, did Rebbi Zeira really give for the prohibition of marrying on Motza'ei Shabbos?

(b) Nevertheless, we are not afraid that, when *Yom Kipur* falls on Monday, someone may Shecht a bird on Shabbos for Erev Yom Kipur.
What would we do if we were?

(c) One reason for this distinction is because, whereas for a wedding, one needs to prepare a feast for all the guests, on Yom Kipur, people are only preparing for their own immediate family.
What is the second answer?

(d) Originally, we gave the reason for the prohibition of marrying (performing Bi'ah) on Friday night, as making a wound.
What reason do we give now?

(a) We learned in our Mishnah that a Besulah goes under the Chupah on Wednesday. The B'nei Yeshivah asked whether they consummated the marriage straightway or only after nightfall.
Why might they be obligated to wait until nightfall?

(b) We resolve the She'eilah from Bar Kapara in a Beraisa.
What does he say about ...

1. ... a Besulah who marries on Wednesday?
2. ... an Almanah who marries on Thursday?

(c) How do we resolve our She'eilah from there?

(a) One of the reasons that an Almanah performs Bi'ah on Thursday (in spite of the B'rachah of the fish) is because the B'rachah that was given to Adam is more worthwhile.
What is the other reason?

(b) One of the differences between the two reasons is manifest in the case of a man who is out of work (to whom 'Shakdu' is not applicable).
What is the other difference?

(a) What does bar Kapara extrapolate from the two Pesukim "af Yadi Yasdah Aretz vi'Yemini Tafchah Shamayim" (Yeshayah) and "Mikdash, Hashem Kon'nu Yadecha" (Beshalach)?

(b) How will bar Kapara then explain the Pasuk in Tehilim ...

1. ... "ve'Yabeshes *Yadav* Yatzaru" (in the plural)?
2. ... "Yadav *Yatzaru*" (in the plural)?

(c) And how will he explain the Pasuk there "u'Ma'aseh *Yadav* Magid ha'Raki'a" (in the plural)? What is this Pasuk then referring to?

(d) What was the name of the Bavli who asked him these Kashyos?

6)

(a) How does bar Kapara explain the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei "ve'Yaseid Tihyeh Lecha al Azeinecha"?

(b) That is also how Rebbi Elazar explained the pointy shape of the fingers. How did we know, when he asked why the fingers are like pegs, that he did he not mean to ask why they are separated into five separate entities and are not joined together?

(c) The five fingers are called Zeres, K'mitzah, Amah, Etzba and Godel. What purpose did the Zeres and the K'mitzah serve?

(d) The Amah was to measure the Amos of the building and of the holy vessels, and the Etzba for sprinkling the blood of the Chatas.
What did Hashem create the Godel for?

(a) How did Tana de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael explain why of the entire ear, only the lobe is soft?

(b) Why should a person be careful not to listen to idle chatter?

(a) The B'nei Yeshivah asked whether it is permitted to make the first Bi'ah with a Besulah on Shabbos.
But did we not learn a Beraisa above which forbade it?

(b) In the first Lashon of the She'eilah, if the blood of Besulim is considered intrinsically joined to the body, then it is certainly forbidden, because extracting it will entail causing a wound.
Why might it be forbidden even if we assume the blood to be merely deposited in the body?

(c) And why might it still be forbidden, even if he really only intends to extract the blood?

(d) According to Rebbi Shimon, we take for granted that, if it is the blood he wants, it will be permitted.
Why is it not a case of 'P'sik Reisha' (which even Rebbi Shimon concedes, is forbidden)?

(a) Why might the first Bi'ah with a Besulah be permitted even according to Rebbi Yehudah who holds that 'Davar she'Ein Miskaven, Asur'?

(b) Why should the Bi'ah of a Besulah be considered Mekalkel?

(c) Why is there no shadow of doubt that if it is Mekalkel, the Bi'ah will be permitted? Does nobody hold that Mekalkel is Chayav?

(a) In the second Lashon, we assume that the blood of a Besulah is intrinsically joined.
Why might the Bi'ah then be permitted?

(b) In which case would the Bi'ah be forbidden according to Rebbi Shimon and permitted according to Rebbi Yehudah?

(c) In Bei Rav, they cited Rav as permitting the first Bi'ah, and Shmuel as forbidding it?
What did they say in Neherda'a?

(d) What Si'man did Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak give to remember where they said what?

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