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1)

(a) According to Rav, someone who betroths a woman on condition that she has no Nedarim, and then, after he marries her S'tam, he discovers that she has, nevertheless requires a Get.
What does Shmuel say?

(b) If, as Abaye contends, Rav's reason is not due to the fact that his marriage to her S'tam, indicates that he has foregone his original stipulation, then what *is*?

(c) What is the difference between the two reasons? What does he gain, according to Abaye?

(d) Then what is Shmuel's reason?

(a) If a Ketanah whose mother and brothers married her off, failed to make Miy'un, and then after she grew up, she married someone else, according to Rav, she does not require a Get from the second man.
Why is that?

(b) Shmuel says that she does.
Why?

(c) According to Shmuel, is she also permitted to live with the second man?

(d) What is the basis of their Machlokes?

(a) Seeing as Rav and Shmuel already argue over this point ...

1. ... in the case of a Ketanah, why did they need to repeat the same Machlokes here by T'nai?
2. ... in the case of T'nai, why did they need to repeat it there by a Ketanah?

(b) Our Mishnah states 'Kansah S'tam ve'Nimtze'u Alehah Nedarim, Teitzei she'Lo bi'Kesuvah'.
What can we infer from there?

(c) On what basis do we attempt to refute Shmuel's opinion from this inference?

(d) How do we reconcile Shmuel's explanation with our Mishnah?

4)

(a) Having just concluded that, according to Shmuel, the Seifa of our Mishnah speaks specifically in a case of 'Kidshah S'tam ve'Kansah S'tam', what can we ask on the Reisha, which speaks about 'Kidshah al T'nai' and stops there? What should the Tana have added?

(b) How do we answer this Kashya? What does the Tana mean to say in the Reisha?

(c) We just concluded that, in the Seifa of our Mishnah, according to Shmuel, the woman requires a Get, but does not receive her Kesuvah.
What problem do we have with that?

(d) Rabah and Rav Chisda answer that the Get is mi'de'Rabbanan.
What does Rav Chisda say?

(a) Rabah contends that Rav and Shmuel argue specifically by *two* women (when a man betrothed one woman conditionally, and later betrothed and married a second one).
What will they hold in the case of 'Kidshah al T'nai ve'Kansah S'tam' by *one* woman? Why will Rav agree there?

(b) On what grounds do we refute this contention? What Kashya did we ask earlier that suggests otherwise?

(c) How do we therefore amend Rabah's statement to fit with our Mishnah? In which case do Rav and Shmuel argue and in which case do they agree?

(d) What is then the case in our Mishnah from which we asked on Shmuel earlier?

(a) Abaye asked on Rabah from a Beraisa, which discusses 'Kidshah be'Ta'us u've'Pachos mi'Shaveh Perutah (ve'Chein Katan she'Kidshah)'.
What does the Tana say about such a case, where the man subsequently sent the woman gifts?

(b) The Tana Kama maintains that if they subsequently made Bi'ah, he acquires her.
What does Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yishmael say?

(c) So we see that Tana'im do argue over whether a man is Bo'eil for the sake of Kidushin or not - even by one woman.
What makes us think that 'Kidshah be'Ta'us' refers to when he stipulated that the woman has no Nedarim?

(d) How does Rabah explain the Beraisa, to resolve this Kashya?

(a) Having established that the Tana Kama and Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yishmael argue solely about Kidushin of less that a Shaveh Perutah, what is the basis of their Machlokes?

(b) What will they both hold in the case of 'Kidshah al T'nai ve'Kansah S'tam' (by one woman)?

(a) According to the Tana Kama of a Beraisa, if a man stipulates that he is Bo'eil a woman on condition that her father agrees, then even if her father does not agree, she is Mekudeshes.
What does Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah Amar Rebbi Shimon say?

(b) How does this Beraisa pose a Kashya on Rabah?

(c) Rabah answers however, that they are not arguing over whether the man overlooks the T'nai and is Bo'eil for the sake of Kidushin or not.
What then, is the basis of their of their Machlokes?

(a) What is 'a Yesomah be'Chayei ha'Av'?

(b) Should the Yesomah's husband then die, on what grounds does the Tana of the Beraisa rule 'Choletzes ve'Lo Misyabemes'?

(c) But that is only if he remarried her when she was still a Ketanah and she was still a Ketanah when her husband died.
What would the Tana Kama hold if he remarried her after she grew-up, or if she had grown-up by the time her husband died?

(d) What does Rebbi Eliezer say in the case when ...

1. ... he remarried her whilst she was still a Ketanah, but she had grown-up by the time her husband died?
2. ... he remarried her after she had grown-up? Why is that?

(a) Why does this Beraisa pose a Kashya on Rabah?

(b) How does Rabah explain the Beraisa?

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