REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Nedarim 16
NEDARIM 16 - dedicated anonymously in honor of Kollel Iyun Hadaf, and in
honor of those who study the Dafyomi around the world.
(a) Who must be the author of our Mishnah, who differentiates between
'Korban Lo Ochal Lach' and 'Korban Ochal Lach'?
(b) What would Rebbi Yehudah have said had he been the author of the
(c) Our Mishnah also rules 'Lo Korban Lo Ochal Lach, Mutar'.
What will the
Tana hold by 'la'Korban Lo Ochal Lach'?
(a) What do the following have in common: 'Shevu'ah Lo Ochal Lach'; 'Hei
Shevu'ah she'Ochal Lach'; 'Lo Shevu'ah Lo Ochal Lach'?
(b) 'Shevu'ah Lo Ochal Lach' is valid because it implies that he is
forbidding the Mudar's food with a Shevu'ah.
Why do we not explain 'Hei
Shevu'ah she'Ochal Lach' to mean 'by the life of the Shevu'ah' (which is
meaningless), like we explain 'Hei Korban'?
(c) Why is 'Lo Shevu'ah (or la'Shevu'ah, according to the Ran) Lo Ochal
Lach' a valid Shevu'ah, considering that Rebbi Meir, the author of our
Mishnah, who holds 'mi'Chelal La'av *I* Ata Shomei'a Hein'?
(a) In the Mishnah in Shevu'os 'Shevu'os Sh'tayim she'Hein Arba, she'Ochal
ve'she'Lo Ochal ... ', what must '(Shevu'ah) she'Ochal' mean?
(b) To reconcile this with our Mishnah, where 'Hei Shevu'ah she'Ochal Lach'
means 'that I will not eat', Abaye explains 'she'Ochal Sh'tei Leshonos
Mashma ... '.
How does he go on to explain this?
(c) What is the problem regarding 'Achilna Achilna, ve'Su Shevu'ah
she'Ochal' from Abaye's own words in Shevu'os? What does he hold there that
clashes with what he says here?
(d) How do we reconcile this?
(a) Rav Ashi disagrees.
What does *he* say? How does he explain 'Shevu'ah
she'Ochal' of our Mishnah?
(b) Then what is the Chidush? Is it not obvious that 'Shevu'ah she'I Ochal'
implies an oath that he will not eat?
(c) Why on earth would we have thought so? What is the basis for such a
(a) Abaye does not like Rav Ashi's explanation, because the Tana said
'she'Ochal', not 'she'I Ochal'.
But why does Rav Ashi decline to learn
(b) According to this latter explanation, what is the implication of
'Shevu'ah she'Lo Ochal' after he said 'Achilna Achilna' (according to the
text of the Ran)?
(a) We learned in the previous Mishnah that, unlike Nedarim, Shevu'os take
effect even on abstract things. Which stringency does the current Mishnah
ascribe to Nedarim over Shevu'os?
Answers to questions
(b) What is the reason for this?
(a) What problem do we have with our Mishnah 'Zeh Chomer bi'Shevu'os
mi'bi'Nedarim' should it refer to the previous Mishnah 'Shevu'ah Lo Ochal
Lach ... Asur' (as it appears to do)? What would then be wrong with the
(b) How is this problem solved when we answer that it refers to the earlier
Mishnah 'Shevu'ah she'Eini Yashein ... Asur'?
(c) Why can we not ask the same Kashya (that we asked in a.) on the
continuation of our Mishnah, 've'Chomer Nedarim mi'bi'Shevu'os, implying
that, although a Shevu'ah is less stringent than a Neder with regard to
negating a Mitzvah, it is nevertheless valid? Is this really true?
(a) What does Rav Gidal Amar Rav (or Amar Shmuel) learn from the Pasuk in
Matos "Lo Yacheil Devaro"?
(b) And what do we learn from "la'Hashem"?
(c) On what basis do we confine this latter D'rashah to Nedarim?
(a) What problem does Rava have with Abaye's Lashon 'Ha de'Amar Hana'as
Sukah Alai'? Why would such a Neder be invalid?
What will be the difference between someone who says 'Konem Yeshivas Sukah
Alai' or 'Konem Zerikas Tz'ror la'Yam' on the one hand, and 'Konem Sukah
Alai' or 'Konem Tz'ror Zeh Alai', on the other?
(b) So Rava explains that, to forbid sitting in a Sukah with a Lashon of
Neder, one would have to say 'Konem Yeshivas Sukah Alai'.
Why might even
this Lashon be incomplete? How would we have to amend it?
(c) On what grounds do Tosfos accept the Lashon as it stands?
(d) According to Tosfos explanation, how will we explain the Sugya in
K'suvos and later in this Masechta which requires a person who wishes to
forbid the work of his wife's hands on himself, to say 'Yikadshu Yadayim
We just learned that a Shevu'ah to nullify a Mitzvah is invalid from the
Pasuk "Lo Yacheil Devaro". How do we reconcile this with the Beraisa, which
learns it from the Pasuk in Devarim "Lehara O Leheitiv"? Why do we need two
Answers to questions