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1)

(a) We have already quoted the Mishnah later, which discusses the case of woman who declares 'Netulah Ani min ha'Yehudim'.
Does her Neder require Hafarah?

(b) We think at first, that a husband must be included in 'people', because otherwise, it would fall under the category of Nidrei Inuy Nefesh, and her husband would be able to annul it completely. Why is that? How are we currently interpreting 'Netulah Ani min ha'Yehudim'?

(c) Why would we not have a problem if a husband would be included in 'people'?

(d) According to other texts, we think that if a husband was not included in 'people', the Neder would not require Hafarah at all.
Why not?

3)

(a) The Tana of our Mishnah permits a woman who forbade the Hana'ah of others upon herself to collect Leket, Shikchah and Pei'ah, but not Ma'aser Ani.
What is Ma'aser Ani?

(b) What problem do we have with this from a Beraisa?

(c) Rav Yosef connects these two opinions to another Machlokes in a Mishnah in D'mai. Rebbi Eliezer and the Rabbanan there both agree that one is obligated to separate Ma'aser Rishon and to take Terumas Ma'aser from that.
What does one then do with ...

1. ... the Terumas Ma'aser?
2. ... the remainder of the Ma'aser Rishon?

(a) According to Rebbi Eliezer, the purchaser is not obligated to separate Ma'aser Ani.
What do the Chachamim say?

(b) Rav Yosef suggests that they argue over whether Ma'aser Ani is 'Tovel' or not.
What does he mean by that?

(c) How will this explain the Machlokes between our Mishnah, which forbids the woman who made the Neder to eat Ma'aser Ani, and the Mishnah in D'mai, which permits it?

(d) Is there any significance in the Lashon 'ka'Savar *S'feiko* Eino Tovel'?
Can we infer from there that Vaday Ma'aser Ani *is*?

5)

(a) The Torah writes in Emor "ve'Lo Yechalelu es Kodshei B'nei Yisrael Asher Yarimu la'Hashem".
What do we learn from ...

1. ... "Asher Yarimu"?
2. ... "ve'Lo Yechalelu"? What does this imply?
3. ... the combination of the two D'rashos.

(b) What is the logic behind the opinion that holds 'Ma'aser Ani Eino Tovel?

(c) Why, by the same token, do we have no problem with saying that Terumah is Tovel?

(d) What do others learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah "*Lo Suchal* Le'echol *bi'She'arecha* ... " "ve'Achlu *bi'She'arecha* ve'Savei'u" (in connection with Ma'aser Ani)?

(a) Abaye rejects Rav Yosef's explanation. According to him, both our Mishnah [as well as the Chachamim] (which forbids the woman to eat Ma'aser Ani) and the Beraisa [as well as Rebbi Eliezer] (which permits it) hold that S'feiko Tovel.
On what grounds then, does the Tana of the Beraisa (as well as Rebbi Eliezer) permit the woman to eat it?

(b) What makes us so certain that the Am ha'Aretz separated Ma'aser Ani?

(c) Why can Abaye not say that both Tana'im agree that 'S'feiko Eino Tovel'?

(a) How does Rava correlate the Pasuk in Ki Savo "ve'Nasata la'Levi, la'Ger ... ', and the one in Re'ei "ve'Hinachta bi'She'arecha ve'Savei'u"?

(b) How does he then use this corollary to resolve the discrepancy between our Mishnah (which forbids the woman to eat Ma'aser Ani) and the Beraisa (which permits it)?

(a) We can infer from 'the Reisha' of our Mishnah 'Kohanim u'Levi'im Nehenim Li, Yitlu al Korcho' that Tovas Hana'ah is not considered Mamon.
What discrepancy are we faced with from the Seifa?

(b) How do we resolve it?

(c) According to Rebbi in a Beraisa, someone who steals his friend's Tevel and eats it, is obligated to pay for everything that he ate.
Considering that part of what he ate is Chulin, and part Ma'asros, what exactly does this mean?

(d) What does Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah say?

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