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REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI

prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem

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Nidah 5

1)

(a) According to Rebbi Chanina ben Antignus, when is a Kesem (bloodstain) Metamei retroactively, and when is it Metamei only from the time it is found, and why the difference?

(b) Rebbi Meir is strict in this regard. What does he say?

(c) About which 'woman' do Chazal say that her Kesem is not Tamei at all?

(d) When does a girl enter the stage of 'Higi'a Zemanoh li'Re'os?

2) What is the Din if a girl who has reached the age of seeing blood, but has not yet seen, now sees a Kesem?

3)

(a) What does Rav Yehudah quoting Shmuel say about an Eid she'Lifnei Tashmish, and why?

(b) In that case, why does the Mishnah write 'ha'Meshameshes *be'Eidim*, Harei Zu ki'Pekidah' (in the plural), and what is the Chidush?

In the second answer, the Gemara concedes that 'be'Eidim' refers to before and after Tashmish.
(c) What is the Chidush, and what correction must we make in the word 'ha'Meshameshes', and why?
4) If the Eidim detract from twenty-four hours, then they will certainly detract from the examination of the morning till the Pekidah of the evening, which is only twelve hours. So why does the Mishnah need to mention it?

Answers to questions

5b---------------------------------------5b

5)

(a) Why does the Mishnah mention the bed in the case of Dayah Sha'atah, and how does that bear out Ze'iri's statement, regarding 'Mei'es Le'es shebe'Nidah'?

(b) How come that a bed is not considered something which cannot ask, and which is therefore Tahor even in a Reshus ha'Yachid? (What is the Gemara's initial answer, and what does the Gemara finally conclude).

(c) According to the Gemara's conclusion, what would be a case of something which cannot ask, and which would therefore be Tahor even in the Reshus ha'Yachid?

6) If a Tamei person putting on his cloak beside Taharos, or a Tahor person next to a Sheretz, and he is not sure whether his cloak touched the Taharos - to make *them* Tamei, or the Sheretz - to make *him* Tamei, the Beraisa rules that he and the Taharos, remains Tahor.
(a) Why is this not a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan, the author of the previous answer (in b.)

(b) What does Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel mean when he says that we say to the man 'Shanei!'

(c) What do the Rabbanan hold in this regard?

7)
(a) What does the Beraisa mean when it writes 'Mei'es Le'es she'be'Nidah Metamei Mishkav u'Moshav *ke'Maga'ah*'?

(b) Why can ke'Maga'ah' not mean the things that she touches?

Answers to questions

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