REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafPesachim 44
(a) Having established that Ze'iri (who adds Se'or to the list of 'Heter
Mitztaref le'Isur') holds like Rebbi Eliezer, what will he say (with regard
to Heter Mitztaref le'Isur) by Chametz on Pesach?
(b) Then why does he make a point of specifically mentioning Se'or?
(a) If a Pesul-Yom touches any part of a Terumah-stew containing Chulin
spices, he renders the entire stew, Tamei.
What will be the Din in the
reverse case, if he touches the spices in a Chulin-stew containing Terumah
(b) Rabah bar bar Chanah ascribes the fact that he is Chayav for
subsequently eating it (and that the Terumah is not Batel), to the fact that
a Zar receives Malkos for eating a k'Zayis.
What does Abaye attempt to
prove from here?
(c) What does Rav Dimi answer him?
(d) What is a 'k'Zayis bi'Chedei Achilas Peras'?
(a) What is the source for the Shiur of 'k'Zayis bi'Chedei Achilas Peras'?
(b) In that case, why do the Rabbanan argue with Rebbi Eliezer and exempt
one from Malkos for eating Kutach ha'Bavli?
(c) Will someone who eats a dishful of Kutach ha'Bavli in one sitting be
(a) If two mortars full of spice, one of Chulin, the other of Terumah, spill
into two pots, one of Chulin and the other, of Terumah, we assume that it
was the Terumah that fell into the Terumah, and the Chulin into the Chulin.
Why us that?
Answers to questions
(b) But how can the Beraisa say that? Having just established that a
'k'Zayis bi'Chedei Achilas Peras' is d'Oraysa, how can the Beraisa be
lenient by Terumah, which is an Isur d'Oraysa - which even carries with it a
punishment of Misah bi'Yedei Shamayim?
(c) And how will we explain a similar Beraisa, which issues the same lenient
ruling when two Sa'ah of grain, one of Chulin and one of Terumah, fell into
two boxes, one of Chulin and one of Terumah?
(a) Rebbi Yochanan and Ze'iri (on 43b) learn from "Mishras" by Nazir, that
'Heter Mitztaref le'Isur' by Nazir. The Beraisa learns 'Ta'am k'Ikar' from
What is the difference between 'Heter Mitztaref le'Isur' and 'Ta'am
(b) How do we reconcile Rebbi Yochanan and Ze'iri with the Beraisa? How can
we learn both things from "Mishras"?
(c) Using the Isur of Kil'ayim as an example of Isur, the Chachamim extend
'Ta'am k'Ikar' to all other Isurim from a three point Kal va'Chomer.
are the three points in which Kil'ayim is more stringent than wine to a
(d) Which of these three points is not applicable by Orlah?
(a) So we have established Rebbi Yochanan and Ze'iri like Rebbi Akiva who
applies 'Heter Mitztaref le'Isur' by Nazir.
Why may it not necessarily be
the Rebbi Akiva of the Mishnah in Nazir, who says 'Nazir she'Sharah Pito
ba'Yayin, ve'Yesh Bo Letzaref Kedei k'Zayis, Chayav'? How might one
interpret this other than by 'Heter Mitztaref le'Isur'?
(b) If Rebbi Akiva is referring to the wine alone, then why does he give
the Shiur as a k'Zayis, should he not have said 'a Revi'is'?
(c) How does one measure a k'Zayis by liquid anyway?
(d) The proof that Rebbi Akiva holds of 'Heter Mitztaref le'Isur' by Nazir
lies in a Beraisa.
What does he say there with regard to a Nazir who
soaked his bread in wine?
(a) In the above case of a Nazir who soaked his bread in wine, did the wine
spread right across the k'Zayis of bread or only across a part of it, and
why must we say that?
(b) What will the Rabbanan say?
(c) From where does Rebbi Akiva learn 'Ta'am k'Ikar'?
(d) Why do the Rabbanan decline to learn 'Ta'am k'Ikar' from Basar
(a) What is unique about Basar be'Chalav? Is it the fact that the two
individual ingredients are permitted, and only become Asur when they are
(b) Then what is its unique characteristic?
(c) So how can Rebbi Akiva argue with such a powerful Sevara? How can he
learn other Isurim from Basar be'Chalav?
(d) So what *is* his source for 'Ta'am k'Ikar'?
(a) When the Torah prescribed Hag'alah by the vessels captured from Midyan,
was it referring to vessels that had been used that day, or even to vessels
that had been used prior to that, and what is the difference between them?
Answers to questions
(b) Then why do the Rabbanan decline to learn 'Ta'am k'Ikar' from there?