Previous daf

1)

(a) Rebbi Yossi holds 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos' (like Rebbi Yehoshua). Can he nevertheless be the author of our Mishnah?

(b) What is the problem with saying that Rebbi Yossi holds both 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar' and 'Ein ha'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos'?

(c) The Gemara retorts 'u'Leta'mech' from Rebbi Eliezer, who holds 'Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar'.
What is the Kashya?

(d) What are the two ramifications of 'Tzitz Meratzeh Al Achilos', even if one holds 'Dam Af al Pi she'Ein Basar'?

(a) We established that Rebbi Yossi holds 'Dam Af al Pi she'Ein Basar (like Rebbi Eliezer). By Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur, there is the blood (on which the Tzitz is Meratzeh), and by the Omer, the Kometz, as we discussed earlier. What is the equivalent to the blood by the Lechem ha'Panim?

(b) The Sh'tei ha'Lechem however, present a problem, because they are completely eaten.
Why can the Tana not be referring, not to the Sh'tei ha'Lechem themselves, but to the Korban that is brought together with them?

(a) We then try and reconcile our Mishnah with Rebbi Yossi by establishing that he holds 'Tum'ah Hutrah be'Tzibur'.
What will that achieve?

(b) This is disproved from the Beraisa where Rebbi Yossi himself says that one only sprinkles the Kohen who burnt the Parah Adumah and the Kohen Gadol on Yom Kipur with the ashes of all the Paros Adumos that were there, on the third and the seventh days.
What does Rebbi Meir hold there?

(c) How do we prove from that Beraisa that Rebbi Yossi cannot hold 'Tum'ah Hutrah be'Tzibur'?

(a) Rebbi Yossi seems to side with Rebbi Eliezer both by Zevachim ('Dam, Af al Pi she'Ein Basar') and Menachos ('Kometz, Af al Pi she'Ein Sham Shirayim'), and with Rebbi Yehoshua both by Menachos ('Im Ein Sham Shirayim, Ein Kometz') and Zevachim ('Im Ein Dam, Ein Basar').
How do we initially attempt to explain the apparent discrepancy in Rebbi Yossi's words?

(b) How do we reject this on the basis of the source of the Machlokes between Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua in the Torah?

(c) We then try to explain him to mean that he rules like Rebbi Eliezer by 'Nitma', and like Rebbi Yehoshua by 'Avud ve'Saruf'.
On what grounds does the Gemara reject this explanation, too?

(d) The Gemara then contends that Rebbi Yossi rules like Rebbi Eliezer by a Tzibur and like Rebbi Yehoshua by a Yachid. Besides the fact that this would mean that Rebbi Yossi agrees with Rebbi Eliezer that 'Tum'ah *Hutrah* be'Tzibur' (whereas, as we saw earlier, he actually holds 'Tum'ah *Dechuyah* be'Tzibur'), on what other grounds does the Gemara not accept this answer?

5)

(a) Finally, the Gemara establishes Rebbi Yossi to mean that he holds like Rebbi Eliezer Bedieved, and like Rebbi Yehoshua Lechatchilah.
But did we not conclude earlier (78b) that even Rebbi Yehoshua agrees Bed'eved 'she'Im Zarak, Hurtzah'?

(b) Is Rebbi Yossi referring to a Korban Yachid or a Korban Tzibur?

(a) By the Korban Pesach, does one sprinkle the blood on the *Chelev* (even when the Basar is not there or Tamei), or vice-versa?

(b) In what way do other Kodshim differ from the Korban Pesach in this regard?

(a) Rav says that if, in the case in our Mishnah when the Basar became Tamei, the blood was sprinkled, the Korban is accepted.
But surely the purpose of the Pesach is to eat, and in this case, since it cannot be eaten, it should not be accepted either?

(b) What do we learn from the double Lashon (in Bo) "*be'Michsas*" and "Ish Le'fi Ochlo *Tachosu*"? This Pasuk is speaking about Menuyav.
From where do we know that the same applies to Ochlav?

(c) Rav holds like Rebbi Nasan.
What does Rebbi Nasan say?

(a) In our search for the source of Rebbi Nasan's opinion, we quote a Beraisa where he declares that the whole of Yisrael can fulfill their obligation with one Korban Pesach.
How do we attempt to prove our point from there?

(b) On what grounds is that proof rejected?

(a) The Gemara finally proves its point from Rebbi Nasan's opinion in the Beraisa, which speaks about a second group that was designated on a Korban Pesach, whose members did not each have a k'Zayis in it.
What does he say about that, from which we can derive that eating the Pesach is not essential to the Korban's validity?

(b) How do we know that the reason there is not because if either group were to withdraw, there would be a k'Zayis for each member of the other group (like we said in the previous case)?

(c) What do the Rabbanan of Rebbi Nasan say?

(d) What forces Rav to establish our Mishnah ('Nitma Basar ve'Cheilev Kayam, Eino Zorek es ha'Dam') by Lechatchilah (from which he deduces that Bedi'eved, the Pesach is Kasher - like Rebbi Nasan). How does he know that the Tana is not speaking even Bedie'ved, like the Rabbanan?

(a) How does Rebbi Nasan explain the Pasuk "Ish Le'fi Ochlo"?

(b) The author of the Beraisa, which states 'Shachto le'Ochlav, ve'Zarku Damav she'Lo le'Ochlav, ha'Pesach Atzmo Kasher, ve'Adam Yotze Bo Yedei Chovaso', appears to be Rebbi Nasan.
Could it actually be the Rabbanan?

(c) And who is the author of the Beraisa which requires the owner of the Pesach to be fit to eat it from the time of the Shechitah until it is eaten? Could it be Rebbi Nasan?

(a) Another Beraisa states that if the Pesach was Shechted be'Taharah, and then the owner became Tamei, the blood should be sprinkled be'Taharah, but the Pesach may not be eaten be'Tum'ah. Rebbi Elazar establishes the author to be Rebbi Nasan.
In which point does Rebbi Elazar dispute the previous interpretation of Rebbi Nasan?

(b) Rebbi Yochanan disagrees with Rebbi Elazar.
What does he say?

(c) Why is the Pesach then not *eaten* be'Tum'ah as well?