REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous dafRosh Hashanah 29
(a) What did Rebbi Zeira instruct his servant (who was blowing the Shofar)
to do? How does he argue with Rava?
(b) How will Rebbi Zeira then explain our Mishnah, which requires a person
walking behind a Shul to have Kavanah to hear the Shofar, but says nothing
about the blower (who is not aware of the man behimd the Shul and does
certainly not have him specifically in mind)?
(c) What do we ask on Rebbi Zeira from the Beraisa which states that, if the
listener had Kavanah but not the blower, he is not Yotze? Who is not Yotze?
How do we know that the blower did not have Kavanah for himself?
(d) Rebbi Zeira answers that this is a Machlokes Tana'im. The Tana Kama of
the Beraisa holds that the blower does *not* need to specifically have the
listener in mind.
Who is the Tana who says that he *does* (and with whom
Rebbi Zeira agrees)?
(a) How did Moshe's raised or lowered hands affect the course of the war
with Amalek? Since when do Jewish victories depend on raised hands?
(b) What similar idea similar idea does the Tana present in connection with
the copper snake?
(c) A deaf-mute, a fool, and a minor cannot blow Shofar for grown-ups.
which principle is this ruling based?
(a) One Tumtum may not blow even for another, though an Androginus may.
What is ...
(b) What is the reason for the above distinction in their Halachos?
- ... a Tumtum?
- ... an Androginus?
(c) Why is a slave Patur from Teki'as Shofar?
(d) Why can someone who is half-slave, half free not blow for his friend?
How can a person be a half-slave, half-free?
(a) Initially, we quote two Pesukim to explain why the Tana of the Beraisa
needs to tell us that Kohanim, Levi'im and Yisraelim are obligated to blow
Shofar on Rosh Hashanah: "Yom Teru'ah Yihyeh Lashem" (Pinchas), and
"u'S'ka'atem ba'Chatzotz'ros" (Beha'aloscha).
Someone who is half-slave and half-free may not blow even for his friend.
On what grounds are we forced to amend the statement of Rav Huna, who
permitted him to blow for himself?
What do we learn from these
(b) On what grounds do we refute this explanation?
(c) How do we ultimately explain the Beraisa on the basis of the Mishnah
that we learned above, equating Rosh Hashanah with the Yovel?
(d) The source for this is the Mishnah in Erchin, which permits Kohanim and
Levi'im to sell their property at all times and to redeem it.
of these do we learn that Kohanim and Levi'im are not subject to Yovel?
(a) On what grounds may one Jew (who is a Bar-Chiyuva) blow for another,
even though he himself is not currently Yotze with the blowing?
Answers to questions
(b) Why does this principle not apply to reciting a Berachah over bread or
wine? Will it apply to other foods?
(a) What is Rava's She'eilah with regard to reciting the Berachah of
'ha'Motzi' over Matzah or 'Borei P'ri ha'Gafen' over the wine of Kidush for
***** Hadran Alach, Ra'uhu Beis-Din *****
(b) Will Rava's She'eilah extend to the Berachah of 'Al Achilas Matzah' and
over 'Mekadesh Yisrael' of Kidush?
(c) We resolve Rava's She'eilah from Rav Ashi.
What did Rav Ashi quote Rav
Papi as having done?
(d) May one recite a Berachah over food on behalf of his children who are
about to eat (even though he does not intend to eat together with them)?
***** Perek Yom-Tov *****
(a) What is the Din with regard to blowing the Shofar on Shabbos ...
Chazal also differentiated between Yerushalayim and Yavneh inasmuch as in
Yavneh, when Rosh Hashanah fell on Shabbos, they would only blow in Yavneh
itself, whereas in Yerushalayim they would blow in other towns too, provided
four conditions were met.
(b) What did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai institute after the Churban Beis
- ... min ha'Torah?
- ... mi'de'Rabbanan?
(c) How does Rebbi Eliezer restrict the scope of Raban Yochanan's Takanah?
What were they?
(a) How do we try to resolve the discrepancy between the Pasuk in Emor,
which writes "Shabbason *Zichron Teru'ah*" and the Pasuk in Pinchas writes
"*Yom* Teru'ah* Yihyeh Lachem"?
(b) What, besides blowing the Shofar, is referred to as a 'Chochmah' rather
than a 'Melachah'?
(c) Besides the fact that blowing the Shofar is a Chochmah and not a
Melachah (and that it cannot therefore herefore be a *Torah* prohibition to
blow on Shabbos), what is the problem with the explanation that we gave in
a. (to resolve the discrepancy between the two Pesukim) from the Din of
blowing in the Beis Hamikdash?
(a) What then, is the reason for the prohibition, and why did Chazal
differentiate between blowing the Shofar on Shabbos in the Medinah and in
the Beis Hamikdash?
The 'Amru Lo', who permit blowing in any town with a Beis-Din, appear to be
saying the same as the Tana Kama.
(b) What did Raban Yochanan ben Zakai counter-suggest when, after the
Churban, the B'nei Beseirah suggested that Beis-Din sit down and discuss
whether or not to include the town where the Sanhedrin sat, in the decree of
not blowing Shofar on Shabbos?
(c) What did he then rule after they had blown, and they wanted to sit down
and discuss the matter for future years?
In what point do they actually disagree
Answers to questions