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Halachah 4

1)

(a) 'Hamakdish Nechasav, ve'Hayu Bahen Devarim Re'uyin le'Korbenos Tzibur, Yinasnu le'Umnin bi'Secharan, Divrei Rebbi Akiva'.
What does 'Devarim Re'uyin le'Korbenos' refer to?

(b) How is it possible for Hekdesh to go out to Chulin without being transferred on to a Chulin article?

(c) Ben Azai disagrees.
What does Ben Azai hold?

(a) What happens in a similar case, according to Rebbi Eliezer, if, among his property, there were male or female animals, and what happens to the proceeds?

(b) Why, according to Rebbi Eliezer, are the animals not just brought on the Mizbei'ach directly?

(c) Then why must they be sold as Korbanos at all?

(d) Rebbi Yehoshua disagrees. According to him, what happens to ...

1. ... the male animals?
2. ... the female animals and their proceeds?

(a) In the previous Halachah, why did Rebbi Akiva prefer the opinion of Rebbi Eliezer?

(b) What compromise did Rebbi Papayus hear - sometimes like Rebbi Eliezer; sometimes like Rebbi Yehoshua?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer rule if, among his property, there was flour, wine, oil or birds that were fit to go on the Mizbei'ach?

(a) Rebbi Yochanan establishes Korbenos Tzibur in the Reisha of our Mishnah, as meaning Ketores.
How does Rebbi Hoshaya explain it? Why does he disagree with Rebbi Yochanan?

(b) In addition to the fact that 'S'tam Hekdesh le'Bedek ha'Bayis' (Mishnah in Temurah), Bedek ha'Bayis also takes effect on anything (which Kodshei Mizbei'ach does not).
What are the two remaining advantages of Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis over Kodshei Mizbei'ach listed by the Mishnah in Temurah?

(c) Who is the author of this Mishnah that holds 'S'tam Hekdesh le'Bedek ha'Bayis'? Which Tana disagrees with that?

(d) How does Rebbi Eliezer learn this from the Pasuk in Bechukosai "ve'Ish Ki Yakdish es Beiso Kodesh la'Hashem"?

(a) According to Rebbi Zeira quoting Rav, Rebbi Eliezer speaks only about someone who declares *all* his property Hekdesh, but not if he declares only his flocks Hekdesh.
What will Rebbi Eliezer hold *there*?

(b) Rebbi Ba in the name of Rav says the reverse.
When do Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua argue, according to him, and when do they agree?

(c) The Gemara asks on Rebbi Ba from 'Beheimah Lo la'Mizbei'ach Hi'?
What is the Kashya?

(d) What does the Gemara's answer?

(a) Rebbi Yochanan has a third way of explaining the Machlokes.
What is it?

(b) What does Rebbi Yochanan say about redeeming animals that are fit to go on the Mizbei'ach, and that one (wrongly) declared Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis?

(c) The Gemara asks on him from the Mishnah in Chulin: 'V'ladan ve'Chelban (of Ba'alei Mumin) Mutar le'Achar Pidyonon', implying that if they are unblemished, then even *after* their redemption, they are forbidden?
How does the Gemara reconcile Rebbi Yochanan with that Mishnah?

(d) What is the proof from the Mishnah in Temurah: 'V'ladan ve'Chelban (of Kodshei Mizbei'ach) Asur le'Achar Pidyonan *Mah she'Ein Kein be'Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis*?

7) How do we prove Rebbi Yochanan right from Rebbi Eliezer in our Mishnah?

8)

(a) How many La'vin does someone who declares Ba'lei Mumin Kodshei Mizbei'ach?

(b) In which regard is his declaration is nevertheless effective?

(c) According to the Tana Kama of the Beraisa, if someone declares a female animal an Olah, a Pesach or an Asham, they are nevertheless subject to Temurah. Rebbi Shimon agrees by an Olah only.
Why is that?

(a) What does Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah quoting Rebbi Shimon, hold - with regard to making a Temurah on a female Olah, Pesach or Asham?

(b) His reason, explains Rebbi Yochanan, is because 'Im Min be'Mino Chaluk Alav, Kol Shekein Min be'she'Eino Mino'.
What does this mean?

(c) Rebbi Yehoshua holds like Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah.
What does he say regarding a female animal that was declared an Olah?

(d) What difference does it make (besides the Din of whether Temurah is effective or not) whether it is Kedushas ha'Guf or Kedushas Damim?

(a) Why does Rebbi not agree with Rebbi Shimon by someone who declared a female lamb a Pesach?

(b) He does not however, disagree with him in the case of an Asham, even though a Mosar Asham is brought as an Olah.
Why not?

(c) In light of what have just learnt, what is the reason of the Tana Kama, who holds that even a female Pesach or Asham can make a Temurah?

(a) What does Rebbi Yehoshua learn (according to the Tiklin Chadtin) from the Pasuk in Emor ...

1. ... "Daber el Aharon ... Ish Ish mi'Beis Yisrael ... *le'Chol Nidreihem u'le'Chol Nidvosam Asher Yakriv la'Hashem le'Olah*"?
2. ... "ba'Bakar"?

(b) According to the Tiklin Chadtin (DH 'u'Mah Beineihen' - 'Shivta de'Kadkada Beineihen') - what distinction does Rebbi Yehoshua draw between a *female* animal that is declared Hekdesh and a *blemished* one, and what is the reason for this distinction? What does 'Shivta de'Kadkada Beineihen' mean?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer (or Rebbi Elazar - Tiklin Chadtin) learn from "ba'Bakar"?

(d) We just learnt that if someone is Makdish his property, the birds go to Bedek ha'Bayis.
How does that clash with Rebbi Yochanan's explanation of Rebbi Shimon, (who rules that if someone declared a female animal as an Olah, it can make a Temurah)?