Previous daf

1)

(a) According to Beis Shamai, where does one burn Kodshei Kodshim that became Tamei inside the Azarah?

(b) This applies whether they became Tamei via an Av ha'Tum'ah or a V'lad ha'Tum'ah.
Which is the sole case when Kodshei Kodshim are burned outside the Azarah?

(a) According to Beis Hillel, Kodshei Kodshim that became Tamei must be taken straight outside and burned *there*.
What is the sole exception to this?

(b) Rebbi Eliezer goes after the degree of Tum'ah. Whatever became Tamei only through a *V'lad ha'Tum'ah* must be burned *inside* the Azarah - even if it became Tamei outside.
Why is that?

(c) What does Rebbi Akiva hold?

(a) According to 'Bar Kapara, the V'lad ha'Tum'ah referred to in our Mishnah is a Tum'ah *de'Rabbanan*.
What is an example of this?

(b) How does Rebbi Yochanan, who learns that the Tana is speaking about Tum'ah *d'Oraysa* exclusively, explain V'lad ha'Tumah (See Tiklin Chadtin)?

(c) Why is there a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan ...

1. ... from Beis Shamai?
2. ... from Beis Hillel?

(d) Why is there a Kashya on Bar Kapara from Beis Shamai but not from Beis Hillel?

(a) Why did the Rabbanan not discuss the Kashyos on Rebbi Yochanan (only the Kashya on Bar Kapara) - according to the Korban ha'Eidah's second explanation?

(b) How do we answer Bar Kapara, using the Sevara of Rebbi Akiva?

(c) How do we explain the Kashya on Beis Hillel's distinction between a Vlad ha'Tum'ah (de'Rabbanan) which became Tamei inside and one which became outside - with a statement of Rebbi Shimon (concerning food and drink of a Metzora) See Hagahos ha'Gra?

(a) The limbs of both the Tamid and those of the Musaf were initially placed on the lower half of the ramp.
How did the Kohanim know which was which?

(b) What did the Kohanim do in between the placing of the limbs on the ramp and taking them up to the Mekom ha'Ma'arachah?

(c) The limbs of the Musaf of Rosh Chodesh were not placed on the ramp at all.
Where *were* they placed?

(a) What is the difference between Shekalim and Bikurim on the one hand, and Ma'ser Dagan, Ma'ser Beheimah and Bechor Beheimah on the other?

(b) Why should the Mitzvah of ...

1. ... Shekalim ...
2. ... Bikurim ... not apply nowadays?

(c) Does this mean that if someone *does* designate either of the two, it does not become Kodesh - according to the Tana Kama of our Mishnah?

(d) What does Rebbi Shimon hold?

(a) Why did the Musaf of Shabbos precede that of Rosh Chodesh?

(b) Then why did the Shir of Rosh Chodesh preceds that of Shabbos?

(c) Why would this be necessary?

9) Rebbi Shimon says in our Mishnah that if someone designates Bikurim nowadays, they are not Kadosh. We can infer from there that he agrees with the Tana Kama that Shekalim *are*.
How does Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah quote him?

10)

(a) The Tana Kama of the Beraisa rules that a convert is obligated nowadays to set aside a Revi'is Kesef for his Kan.
Which Kan?

(b) What does Rebbi Shimon say about this?

(c) For the same reason, one is forbidden to declare something Hekdesh or Cherem nowadays.
What happens if one declared Hekdesh ...

1. ... clothes?
2. ... an animal?
3. ... money?

11)

(a) Why is it that if someone declares his half-Shekel Kadosh (according to Rebbi Shimon ben Yehudah), his declaration is *invalid*; whereas if a convert declared money for his Kan, Hekdesh (which is forbidden Lechatchilah for the same reason) it is *valid*?

(b) What is the Halachah by Bikurim, Shekalim and the Ger's Kan? (see Tiklin Chadtin)