1)

(a) What is 'Kinuy'?

(b) Rebbi Eliezer and Rebbi Yehoshua agree that 'Kinuy' requires two witnesses.
What does Rebbi Eliezer mean when he says 'u'Mashkeh al-Pi Eid Echad'?

(c) What does Rebbi Yehoshua say?

(d) If a husband warns his wife in front of witnesses 'Do not speak with so-and-so!', subsequently speaking with him does not render her a Sotah.
What *does*?

(a) The Torah writes three times "ve'Nitme'ah" in Naso with regard to a Sotah.
What are the ramifications of these three words?

(b) What happens to a Sotah if her husband dies, leaving a brother but no children?

(a) Rebbi placed Sotah after Nazir due to another statement of his.
Which statement?

(b) Then why did he change the order in which they appear in the Torah (Sotah first and then Nazir)?

(c) And why did he place Nedarim after Kesuvos?

(d) The Tana of our Mishnah uses the Lashon 'ha'Mekane' (a Lashon of Bedi'eved) because he holds that Lechatchilah, one should not set the process of Sotah into motion.
Why not?

(a) What does ...

1. ... Resh Lakish learn from the Pasuk in Tehilim "Ki Lo Yanu'ach Sheivet ha'Resha al Goral ha'Tzadikim"?
2. ... Rabah bar bar Chanah Amar Rebbi Yochanan learn from the Pasuk there "Elokim Moshiv Yechidim Baysah Motzi Asirim ba'Kosharos"?

(b) What does "ba'Kosharos" mean?

(c) How does Rav reconcile Resh Lakish's statement with his own; namely, that already forty days before a man is born, a Heavenly Voice announces 'Bas P'loni li'Ploni'?

(d) We just quoted Rav Yehudah Amar Rav, who said 'Arba'im Yom Kodem Yetziras ha'V'lad Bas-Kol Yotzeis ve'Omeres Bas P'loni li'Ploni'.
How do we know from here that a man's first wife is not necessarily a reflection of his merits?

(a) Even Rebbi Yehoshua in our Mishnah, who requires two witnesses for both the 'Kinuy' and the 'S'tirah', will agree that when it comes to the actual act of adultery, even one witness will suffice, as we will see later in Perek ke'Shem.
What are the ramifications of this observation?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Shoftim "Lo Yakum Eid *Echad* be'Ish"?

(c) In light of this, what is the meaning of the Pasuk (written in connection with the Tum'ah of Sotah) "ve'Eid Ein Bah"?

(d) If there is one witness that she sinned, does the woman receive her Kesuvah?

6)

(a) If not for the Pasuk "Lo Yakum Eid *Echad* be'Ish", we would have explained the Pasuk "ve'Eid Ein Bah" to mean that there wasn't even one witness.
What is the problem with saying that?

(b) Why do we at first think that the Pasuk could not be coming to teach us the inference, that one witness is not believed, but that two are required?

(c) So how *would* we have explained the Pasuk? Why would it have nevertheless been necessary to teach us that one witness is not believed?

(d) But how could we have explained "ve'Eid Ein Bah" as a leniency, when the phrase that follows "ve'Hi Lo Nispasah" clearly intimates a Chumra?

(a) What does Rebbi Yehoshua extrapolate from the Pasuk "ve'Eid Ein *Bah*"?

(b) Rebbi Eliezer makes the inference "Bah", 've'Lo be Kinuy'. He does add "Bah", 've'Lo bi'S'tirah', like Rebbi Yehoshua.
What reason do we initially suggest for this?

(c) Considering that in fact, both Kinuy and S'tirah are compared to Tum'ah ("ve'Kinei es Ishto, ve'Nisterah ve'Hi Nitma'ah"), and by Tum'ah, one witness will certainly suffice, on what basis do we preclude Kinuy from the Din of Tum'ah (to insist on two witnesses), and not S'tirah?

(d) Why can we not answer that S'tirah is more comparable to Tum'ah because it forbids her like Tum'ah?

(a) The author of our Mishnah cannot be Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah in the name of Rebbi Eliezer.
What does he Darshen from "ve'Eid Ein *Bah*?

(b) What does he learn from the Hekesh "ve'Nisterah ve'Hi Nitma'ah"?

(a) What did the Chachamim mean when they asked Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah 'Ein le'Davar Sof'?

(b) Why is this Kashya not really confined to Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah in the name of Rebbi Eliezer?

(c) On which of the two is the Kashya stronger?

(d) So how do we amend Rebbi Yochanan's statement 'Af le'Divrei Rebbi Yossi b'Rebbi Yehudah Ein le'Davar Sof'?

(a) On what grounds did Rebbi Chanina from Sura say that nowadays, one should not warn one's wife about secluding herself with a specific man?

(b) How do Resh Lakish and Rav Yeimar bar Shalmaya Amar Abaye both define 'Kinuy'?

(c) What can we extrapolate from this definition?

(a) According to Resh Lakish it is so-called because it causes others to become angry with her.
Like which of the above Tana'im must he then hold?

(b) According to Rav Yeimar bar Shalmaya in the name of Abaye, it is so-called because it causes her husband to become angry with her.
Like which opinion does he hold?

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