Previous daf

1)

(a) What do we learn from the Pasuk in Mal'achi "va'Haveisem *Gazul ve'es ha'Pisei'ach*"?

(b) Why would one not be Yotze if he brought a stolen Korban from which the owner had ...

1. ... not yet been Meya'esh (despaired)?
2. ... already been Meya'esh?

(c) What parable does Rebbi Yochanan quoting Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai, give to explain the Pasuk in Yeshayah "Ki Ani Hashem ... Sonei Gezel be'Olah"?

(d) What do we learn from there?

(a) Rav Yitzchak bar Nachmeini quoting Shmuel, disagrees with Rebbi Yochanan.
What does *he* say about taking a stolen Lulav on the second day of Sukos?

(b) What does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak infer from our Mishnah: 'Lulav ha'Gazul ve'ha'Yavesh Pasul'? Why can this not refer to the first day of Yom-Tov?

(c) What then, is the problem with Shmuel's opinion from there?

(d) How do we resolve the problem by establishing the Mishnah - on the first day of Sukos?

3)

(a) Rav Huna instructed the Hadas salesmen that, whenever they purchased their Hadasim from non-Jews, they should make sure to let the owners cut the Hadasim themselves.
Why would it have been wrong to allow the salesmen to cut the Hadasim themselves?

(b) And what was the advantage of letting non-Jews cut the Hadasim?

(c) Why would that not be necessary with regard to the Hadasim that the salesmen intended to sell? To which Hadasim then, *was* Rav Huna referring?

(a) The Gemara asks why they did not acquire the Hadasim with 'Shinuy Ma'aseh'.
What is 'Shinuy Ma'aseh', and to which Shinuy Ma'aseh is the Gemara referring?

(b) To which the Gemara answers that Lulav does *not* require binding.
How does this answer the question?

(c) How do we then answer the Kashya even if it *does*?

(d) Why did they anyway not acquire the Hadasim with Yi'ush and Shinuy Hashem (since before it was cut, it was called an Asa (the Aramaic for Hadas) - whereas now, it was known as a Hosha'na?