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1)

(a) According to Rava, Raban Gamliel's reason (for holding 'Ein Get Achar Get, ve'Ein Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar') is because he is in doubt whether Get is Docheh or not and whether Ma'amar is Koneh or not.
What does Rava mean by whether Get is Docheh or not or whether Ma'amar acquires or not? Why is that a reason to say 'Ein Get Achar Get?

(b) In a Beraisa, Raban Gamliel concedes that there is Get after Ma'amar, and Ma'amar after Get.
What does he hold in the case of Get after Ma'amar and Bi'ah, and Ma'amar after Get and Bi'ah (both with regard to *three* Yevamos)?

(c) What does Abaye ask on Rava from this Beraisa?

(d) So how does Abaye explain ...

1. ... Raban Gamliel? How does he differentiate between Get Achar Get and Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar on the one hand, and Get Achar Ma'amar and Ma'amar Achar Get, on the other?
2. ... the Rabbanan, who hold 'Yesh Get Achar Get ve'Yesh Ma'amar Achar Ma'amar'?

1. ... Bi'ah Pesulah is better than Ma'amar?
2. ... Ma'amar is better than Bi'ah Pesulah?

(a) According to Raban Gamliel (who holds 'Ein Get Achar Get'), if someone gives two Gitin to two Yevamos, why might one prefer to perform Chalitzah with the second one?

(b) Then why does the Beraisa say that he should perform Chalitzah with the *first* one?

(c) What will be the Din in this case, according to the Chachamim?

(d) What is their Machlokes in the equivalent case of two Yevamin and one Yevamah (if each one gave the Yevamah a Get)?

(a) Shmuel says 'Chalatz le'Ba'alas ha'Get, Lo Nifterah Tzarah'.
Why is that?

(b) We ask on Shmuel from Raban Gamliel in the Beraisa, who says 'Choletz la'Rishonah' (the Ba'alas ha'Get, whose Chalitzah then exempts the Tzarah who did not receive a valid Get).
Why can we not ask from the Chachamim, who also say 've'Choletz le'Achas Meihen'?

(c) How will Shmuel resolve this Kashya from Raban Gamliel? What does this have to do with 'Yesh Zikah or 'Ein Zikah'?

5)

(a) On what basis do we suggest that the Rabbanan hold 'Yesh Zikah'?

(b) Nevertheless, the Tana tells us that if two Yevamin gave a Get to one Yevamah, only one Chalitzah is required. This poses a Kashya on Rabah bar Rav Huna Amar Rav.
What does Rabah bar Rav Huna Amar Rav say?

(c) What is the Kashya?

(d) How will he answer it?

(a) According to Raban Gamliel, if the Yavam made Ma'amar first with one Yevamah, then with the other, the first one requires a Get and Chalitzah. Why can he not perform Yibum with her?

(b) Rebbi Yochanan maintains that Raban Gamliel, Beis Shamai, Rebbi Shimon, ben Azai and Rebbi Nechemyah all agree in a certain point.
Which point?

(c) Where do we see in our Sugya, that Raban Gamliel holds that Ma'amar is Koneh?

(a) What do Beis Shamai say with regard to one of two brothers who were married to two sisters who died, and the third brother had already made Ma'amar with the Yevamah when the second brother died, which proves that he too, holds that Ma'amar is Koneh?

(b) What status did Chazal give the Bi'ah of a Katan over nine?

(c) What did Rebbi Shimon remark to the Chachamim, who ruled that a Yavam Katan who is over nine, who performed Yibum with his Yevamah, after his brother (also a Katan over nine) had already done so, forbids her on his brother?

(d) How does this prove that Rebbi Shimon too, holds that Ma'amar is Koneh?

(a) What distinction does ben Azai make between two Yevamin and one Yevamah, and Ma'amar after Ma'amar by two Yevamos and one Yavam? How do we see from there that he too, holds 'Ma'amar is Koneh?

(b) How do we prove from Rebbi Nechemyah, who says in our Mishnah that there is nothing after Bi'ah, even if it comes in the middle or at the end, that he too, holds that Ma'amar is Koneh? Where does he mention Ma'amar?

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