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1)

(a) The Tana Kama validates Chalitzah that is performed at night, but invalidates it if it performed with the left hand.
What does Rebbi Elazar say?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk (regarding Nega'im) "*u've'Yom* Heira'os Bo"?

(c) Based on the Pasuk in Shoftim "ve'Al Pihem Yihyeh Kol Riv ve'Chol Naga", how do we try and establish the first Machlokes (whether Chalitzah is Kasher by night or not)?

(d) What causes Chalitzah to be incorporated sin the realm of Rivim?

(a) On what grounds do we decline to compare Ribin to Nega'in?

(b) On the presumption that, for other reasons, Techilas Din must be practiced by day, how do we then establish the basis of their dispute?

(a) Rabah bar Chiya K'tuspa'ah single-handedly permitted Chalitzah at night with a soft shoe.
With regard to which of the three did Shmuel object, on the grounds that he was following the opinion of an individual?

(b) Why could his objection not have pertained to the fact that he permitted a soft shoe or that he permitted the Chalitzah to be performed at night?

(a) What does the Tana Kama rule in the next Mishnah, regarding Chalitzah that is performed with two Dayanim, or with three, one of whom is found to be Pasul?

(b) Rebbi Shimon and Rebbi Yochanan ha'Sand'lar validate it.
What did Rebbi Akiva rule with regard to that Yavam and Yevamah who performed Chalitzah in jail?

(c) Alternatively, we argue that all three issues currently under discussion (judging alone, by night and using a cloth shoe) are individual opinion. What is the basis for saying this?

(a) What does the Tana Kama learn from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Regel" "Regel" from Metzora?

(b) According to our text in the Beraisa, Rebbi Elazar does not learn this 'Gezeirah-Shavah'.
From where does he derive that Retzi'ah (the boring of an Eved Ivri's ear who wants to remain after six years) must be done in the *right* ear?

(c) Rav Yitzchak bar Yosef Amar Rebbi Yochanan therefore assumes that, seeing as Rebbi Elazar learns "Ozen" "Ozen", he will be the one to learn "Regel" "Regel" (and the Tana must have confused the two opinions).
How does Rava resolve the contradiction in Rebbi Elazar without amending the text?

(d) Does Rava mean to say that "Regel" is not Mufneh at all?

7)

(a) Will the Chalitzah be Kasher if the Yevamah ...

1. ... pulled off the Yavam's shoe and spat in his direction, but failed to read the Parshah?
2. ... spat in the Yavam's direction and read the Parshah, but failed to pull off his shoe?

(b) If she failed to spit but did perform the other two operations, Rebbi Eliezer invalidates the Chalitzah.
What does Rebbi Akiva say?

(c) How does Rebbi Elazar derive his opinion from the Pasuk "Kachah Yei'aseh"?

(d) In his retort, Rebbi Akiva adds the word "Kachah Yei'aseh *la'Ish*". What does he mean by that?

8)

(a) Is the Chalitzah valid if either the Yevamah was a Chareshes, or the Yavam was a Cheresh or a Katan?

(b) What happens if a Ketanah performed Chalitzah with her Yavam? What if she fails to do that?

(a) Rava extrapolates from our Mishnah that, if the reading of the Parshah is not essential, the Chalitzah of a dumb Yavam or Yevamah is valid.
Then how will he explain our Mishnah, which invalidates the Chalitzah of a Cheresh or a Chareshes?

(b) Then why is the Chalitzah of a Yavam or a Yevamah who is dumb, Kasher, according to him?

(c) Amri de'Bei Rebbi's reason for the P'sul of a Cheresh and a Chareshes forces Rava to retract however.
What does Amri de'Bei Rebbi say?

(a) So we conclude that, in fact, Rava's statement pertains to the Seifa. What did he actually say?

(b) How do we reconcile the fact that, on the one hand, the Chalitzah of a Cheresh and a Chareshes (and of a Yavam and a Yevamah who are dumb) is Pasul, whereas on the other, the reading of the Parshah is not essential?

(a) What did they send to Shmuel's father with regard to a Yevamah who spat in front of the Yavam?

(b) Why can this not go according to Rebbi Akiva in our Mishnah, who validates Chalitzah without the spitting of the Yevamah? What does this have to do with the Eimurin of a Korban?

(c) On what grounds do we initially query the statement even according to Rebbi Elazar, who invalidates Chalitzah without the spitting of the Yevamah?

(a) What are the ramifications of the statement that it is not the waving of the lambs of the Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur (on Shavu'os) that sanctify the two loaves that accompany them, but the Shechitah? What important condition is required?

(b) What is the source for this Halachah?

(c) According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, if either the Shechitah or the sprinkling of the blood was performed with the wrong intentions, the loaves are not sanctified.
What does Rebbi say? In which point does he disagree with Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon?

(d) What does 'Kadosh ve'Eino Kadosh' mean?

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