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1)

(a) Beis Shamai permit only an Arusah to make Miy'un. He also restricts it to Miy'un with the husband, but not with the Yavam.
Which other two restrictions does Beis Shamai place on the girl?

(b) What do Beis Hillel say?

(c) Beis Hillel permit a Ketanah to make Miy'un any number of times.
What do Beis Shamai say?

(a) Rav Yehudah Amar Shmuel ascribes Beis Shamai's reason for restricting Miy'un with an Arusah to the principle 'Ein T'nai be'Nisu'in'.
What does this mean?

(b) Does it also apply to Chupah, or only to Bi'ah?

(c) It certainly does not apply to a case where the father handed her over to the husband's Sh'luchim (to take her to the Chupah).
Then why do Beis Shamai not permit Miy'un at that stage?

(d) Why can the text 'where the father handed her over to the husband's Sh'luchim' not be literal? What then does the Gemara mean to say?

4)

(a) Rabah and Rav Yosef ascribe Beis Shamai's reason to the principle 'Ein Adam Oseh Be'ilaso Be'ilas Z'nus'.
How does that explain Beis Shamai prohibiting girls from making Miy'un?

(b) Will this also apply to a girl who is married but who did not yet perform Bi'ah?

(c) On what grounds do Beis Hillel then argue?

(d) According to Rav Papa, both Beis Shamai and Beis Hillel base their reason on the Peiros of Nichsei mi'Lug (which a man may only use after the marriage).
Why, according to ...

1. ... Beis Shamai, is that a reason to forbid Miy'un after marriage?
2. ... Beis Hillel, is that a reason to permit it?

(a) According to Rava, Beis Shamai's reason for prohibiting a married girl to perform Miy'un, is because of the principle 'Ein Adam Tore'ach bi'Se'udah u'Mafsidah'.
How does this explain the prohibition?

(b) How do Beis Hillel counter that?

(a) Rebbi Oshaya explains that, when Beis Hillel permit Miy'un, even on the Yavam, they mean to remove the Ma'amar, but not the Zikah.
What are the ramifications of his statement?

(b) According to Rav Chisda, this is because Ma'amar is done with the Yevamah's consent, whereas the Zikah, which comes against her will, she does not have the power to remove.
On what grounds do we refute Rav Chisda's explanation?

(c) So how do we differentiate between Bi'ah and Ma'amar on the one hand (where she can make Miy'un) and Zikah on the other (where she cannot)?

7)

(a) Ula disagrees with Rebbi Oshaya.
On what basis does Ula permit the Yevamah to make Miy'un even to remove the Zikah?

(b) We learned a Beraisa on Daf 2b. (with regard to Tzaras ha'Bas) 'Kol she'Yecholah le'Ma'ein ve'Lo Mi'anah, Tzarasah Choletzes ve'Lo Misyabemes'. According to Ula, why should she not perform Yibum with the Yavam *now*?

(a) According to Rav, if the Yevamah made Miy'un with one of the Yevamin, she is forbidden to all of them.
What is his source for this?

(b) What does Shmuel say? Why is this different than the equivalent case by Get?

(c) Rav Asi is the most lenient of all.
What does *he* say?

(d) We try to establish Rav Asi like Rebbi Oshaya, in whose opinion the Yevamah only removes the Ma'amar (but not the Zikah), in which case, the Zikah remains.
How do we establish him even according to Ula? Why, even if he holds like Ula, might Rav Asi agree that, in this case, one cannot remove the Zikah (like Rebbi Oshaya)?

(a) Ravin quoting Rebbi Yochanan rules that if the Yevamah made Miy'un with one of the Yevamin, she is permitted to the brothers. But they did not agree with him, he adds. Abaye explains that 'they' refers to Rav, who holds that she is forbidden to the brothers.
What does Rava mean when he says that it refers to Rebbi Oshaya? Why will Rav Asi agree with Rebbi Yochanan?

(b) And what do Amri Lah mean when they say that it refers to Rav Asi? Does this preclude Rebbi Oshaya?

(a) How did Beis Shamai, who require Miy'un in the presence of the husband, explain the fact that the Chachamim permitted the wife of Pishon the camel-driver's wife, even though her Miy'un was performed in his absence?

(b) But if he was using her Nechsei mi'Lug, it means that they were married. In that case, how could she make Miy'un according to Beis Shamai, who restrict Miy'un to an Arusah?

(c) Beis Hillel do not require Miy'un to be performed in front of Beis-Din. How does Abaye then establish the Mishnah in Nos'in al ha'Anusah, which requires *three* for Miy'un, even like Beis Hillel?

(d) What is the Halachah? How many judges are in fact, required for Miy'un?

(a) Beis Shamai (in our Mishnah) say that after making Miy'un, the girl must wait until she grows-up before making Miy'un and remarrying. Shmuel explains this to mean that she must explicitly state that she still abides by the Miy'un that she made previously, before remarrying.
How does Ula explain the second Miy'un?

(b) How do we prove Ula right? What should Beis Shamai have said according to Shmuel?

(a) A Ketanah may make Miy'un if she was married off by her brothers and her mother.
Under which condition is their Kidushin not valid, so that even Miy'un is not necessary?

(b) What kind of Ketanah does not require Miy'un, according to Rebbi Chanina ben Antignos?

(c) According to Rebbi Eliezer, the deeds of a Ketanah are invalid.
To what does he compare her?

(d) What are the ramifications of this statement (with regard to Kidushin)?

(a) Initially, they used to write in the Get Miy'un all the repetitive phrases that the girl uses whilst making Miy'un ('Lo Ra'ina Bei, ve'Lo Tzavina Bei ve'Leis Ana Ba'is le'Hisnasva Bei').
Why did Rav Yehudah or the Tana change this custom?

(b) What Lashon did they institute instead?

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