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1)

(a) In the second approach, we assume that, if both Rebbi Yossi Hagelili and Rebbi Akiva were to hold 'Hakafah be'Regel', then even Rebbi Akiva would learn P'nim from Chutz.
What then, is Rebbi Akiva's reason?

(b) Alternatively, they both agree that 'Hakafah be'Yad'.
What is then the basis of their Machlokes?

(c) This explanation is rejected however, because of Rebbi Eliezer in our Mishnah.
What does Rebbi Eliezer say, and why does this render the last explanation unacceptable?

(d) There were two Kohanim Gedolim, one of whom claimed that he made Hakafah be'Yad (like Rebbi Akiva), whilst the other claimed to have made Hakafah be'Regel (like Rebbi Yossi Hagelili). What reason did each one give to support his opinion?

(a) The author of our Mishnah, who quotes Rebbi Eliezer as saying that the Kohen Gadol moved his hand upwards on all of the corners except for the one at which he was standing, is Rebbi Yehudah.
How does Rebbi Meir quote him?

(b) What is Rebbi Meir's reason by the three corners? Why then, does he move his hand upwards by the furthest corner?

(a) 'Hizah Mimenu al Taharo shel Mizbe'ach'.
What do we initially think 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach' means.

(b) The Gemara brings a proof from the vernacular- 'Tahar Tihara'. What does 'Tahar Tihara' mean?

(c) We reject this from a Beraisa, which says that Kohen Gadol does not sprinkle the blood on to ashes or coals.
Where then, *does* he sprinkle it?

(d) Based on the Pasuk in Mishpatim "u'che'Etzem ha'Shamayim la'Tohar", how do we now explain 'Taharo shel Mizbe'ach'?

(a) According to Chananya, the Kohen Gadol would sprinkle the blood all seven times on the north of the (top of the) Mizbe'ach ha'Penimi.
What does Rebbi Yossi say?

(b) What are their respective reasons?

(c) How is this derived from the Pasuk "ve'Tiharo ve'Kidsho"?

(a) The Pasuk writes in Acharei-Mos (with regard to the Par Kohen Mashi'ach) "ve'es Kol Dam ha'Par Yishpoch el Yesod Mizbe'ach ha'Olah Asher Pesach Ohel Mo'ed".
To which Yesod does this refer?

(b) What do we learn from the redundant word "ha'Par" (since the Torah could have written "Damo")?

(c) From where do we learn that the leftover blood of the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon was poured on the one Amah of the *southern* Yesod?

(a) Rebbi Yishmael holds that all leftover blood (even from the Mizbe'ach ha'Chitzon) was poured on to the western Yesod.
From where does he learn that?

(b) And according to Rebbi Shimon, they were all poured on to the southern Yesod.
From where does he learn that?

(c) What does the Gemara comment on the fact that, in Rebbi Shimon's Beis Hamedrash, they quoted Rebbi Yishmael as saying that all the blood had to be poured on to the southern Yesod? What does that statement signify?

7)

(a) The authors of our Mishnah, which says that someone who uses the leftover blood after it has flowed out of the Beis Hamikdash via the water of the Amah, is Mo'el, are Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon.
What do the Chachamim hold?

(b) According to Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Shimon, is the Me'ilah mi'd'Oraysa or mi'de'Rabbanan?

(c) Is there any practical difference (besides the Korban) between Me'ilah d'Oraysa and Me'ilah de'Rabbanan?

(a) What does Ula learn from the Pasuk in Acharei-Mos "va'Ani Nesativ *Lachem*" (with regard to blood)?

(b) How does ...

1. ... Tana de'Bei Rebbi Shimon learn the same thing from "Lechaper"?
2. ... Rebbi Yochanan learn it from "Ki ha'Dam *Hu* ba'Nefesh Yechaper"?

(c) In the previous Derashah, why can we not say the opposite: to compare *after* the Kaparah to *before* it - i.e. that Me'ilah should be effective even *after* the Kaparah has been concluded.