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1)

(a) On what grounds does Rava from Barnish refute the 'Tzad ha'Shaveh' from Olah and Minchas Chotei to validate an Asham whose blood entered the Kodesh?

(b) So how does he learn it from the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the blood of a Chatas whose blood was taken into the Kodesh "Asher Yuva mi'Damah"?

(c) Rebbi Eliezer learns "Damah", 've'Lo Besarah'.
From where do the Rabbanan learn this?

(d) What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from "Dam" "Damah"?

(a) How do the Rabbanan explain the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the Minchah) "Kodesh Kodashim Hi ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham".
When does the Torah compare a Minchah to a Chatas, and when does it compare it to an Asham?

(b) How does this create a problem with Rebbi Eliezer?

(c) To explain the Pasuk according to Rebbi Eliezer, we establish him like Rebbi Shimon. In a case where the Kohen took the Kometz to the Mizbe'ach in his hand, without a K'li Shareis, the Tana Kama in the Mishnah in Menachos invalidates the Korban.
What does Rebbi Shimon say?

(a) Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya bases Rebbi Shimon's opinion on "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham".
How does he explain it? What two options does the Kohen have in carrying the Minchah?

(b) What do we learn from the Pasuk "Ve'lakach *ha'Kohen* mi'Dam ha'Chatas *be'Etzba'o*"?

(c) By Asham too, the Torah writes 'Kehunah'.
Why does Rebbi Shimon permit using the left hand?

(d) What do the Chachamim say?

(a) We conclude that Rebbi Shimon learns the Pasuk ("Kodesh Kodashim Hi ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham") like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya explained.
From where does he then learn that a Minchas Chotei is Pasul she'Lo li'Shemah?

(b) According to the Rabbanan in our Mishnah (who validate an Asham that is brought she'Lo li'Shemo), why does the Torah write "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham"?

(a) According to Rebbi Yochanan, Yosef ben Choni (in our Mishnah) and Rebbi Eliezer (in a Beraisa) say one and the same thing.
What is that?

(b) Rabah maintains that Rebbi Eliezer agrees with Yosef ben Choni in a case where someone Shechts another Korban as a Pesach.
In which case does he then argue with him?

(c) Rebbi Eliezer renders Pasul a Pesach in its second year or other Korbanos that one Shechted on the fourteenth as a Pesach.
What does Rebbi Yehoshua hold?

(d) What 'Kal-va'Chomer' does Rebbi Yehoshua learn, based on other Korbanos that are Kasher, even if one Shechted them during the year as a Pesach?

(a) Rebbi Eliezer counters Rebbi Yehoshua with the reverse 'Kal-va'Chomer'.
What does he learn from the fact that a Pesach during the year, which is not Kasher as a Pesach, is Kasher as a Shelamim?

(b) Why is this Kal va'Chomer unacceptable?

(c) What does Rebbi Eliezer set out to prove with this (false) 'Kal va'Chomer'?

(d) And what 'Pircha' does Rebbi Eliezer ask on Rebbi Yehoshua's 'Kal -va'Chomer'? Why is Acherim le'Shem Pesach on the fourteenth worse than a Pesach le'Shem Acherim during the year?

(a) What does Rebbi Yochanan now prove from here?

(b) How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter Rebbi Eliezer's second Kashya?

(c) So Rebbi Eliezer tries another angle.
What does he try to prove from the fact that a Pesach, whose Moser is brought as a Shelamim, is Pasul if he brings it on the fourteenth as a Shelamim?

(d) How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter that with a similar Limud from a Chatas, whose Moser is brought as an Olah, yet it is Pasul if it is brought as an Olah?

(a) How does Rebbi Eliezer counter Rebbi Yehoshua's counter proof?

(b) What might Rebbi Eliezer have answered?

(c) What does Rabah prove from the fact that he didn't?

9)

(a) According to Rav Ashi and Rav Acha b'rei de'Rava in the name Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Yanai respectively, what does Shimon Achi Azaryah learn from the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Lo Yechalelu es Kodshei B'nei Yisrael es Asher Yarimu la'Hashem"?

(b) How does Shmuel learn from the same Pasuk that someone who eats Tevel is Chayav Misah?

(c) Seeing as Misah is not mentioned in this Pasuk, how does Shmuel know that one is Chayav Misah too?

(d) In view of Shimon Achi Azaryah's D'rashah, how can Shmuel learn this from there?

(a) Shimon Achi Azaryah says 'Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim Kesheirim'. Rebbi Zeira is not sure what he means by 'Kesheirim'.
What are the two possible explanations?

(b) And what does Rebbi Zeira mean when he says that if Shimon Achi Azaryah means 'Kesheirim u'Meratzin', then he argues with the Tana Kama in two points? Which two points?

(a) How does Abaye attempt to resolve Rebbi Zeira's She'eilah from the Seifa of our Mishnah 'Bechor u'Ma'aser she'Shachtan le'Shem Shelamim, Kesheirim'?

(b) How do we refute Abaye's proof from there? What does 'Ha ke'de'Isa ve'Ha ke'de'Isa' mean?

(c) In that case (if the Seifa does not come to reflect on the Reisha), having already learned 'Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim ... ', what is then the Seifa coming to teach us?

(d) But don't we know that too, from the Mishnah in 'Kol ha'Tadir' 'Shelamim Kodmin es ha'Bechor Mipnei she'Hein Te'unin Matan Arba ... '?

(a) Rebbi Yehoshua declares a Pesach that was Shechted in the morning of the fourteenth she'Lo li'Shemo, Kasher.
Why is that?

(b) What does ben Beseira say?

(c) Shimon ben Azai quoting the Sanhedrin, rules that 'Kol ha'Zevachim ha'Ne'echalin she'Nizbechu she'Lo li'Sheman Kesheirim'.
What does he mean to preclude when he says 'ha'Ne'echalin?

(d) Which Sanhedrin was he quoting?

(a) According to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshayah, ben Beseira is Machshir the whole of the fourteenth for the Korban Pesach (which explains why he declares she'Lo li'Shemo, Pasul).
Why is that?

(b) Then why did ben Beseira say 'Ke'ilu Nishchat Bein ha'Arbayim' (seeing as it *is* 'Bein ha'Arbayim')?

(c) Then why did ben Beseira and Rebbi Yehoshua not argue whether a Pesach li'Shemo is Kasher in the morning (ben Beseira) or not (Rebbi Yehoshua)?

(d) How does Ula b'rei de'Rav Ila'i explain "Bein ha'Arbayim" (in Bo), according to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshaya?

(a) By the same token, why do we not then permit the Korban Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim to be brought in the morning?

(b) Why do we then need to Darshen from the Pasuk in Tetzaveh "es ha'Keves *ha'Echad* Ta'aseh ba'Boker", 'Echad ve'Lo Shenayim'?

(c) And how do we know that the Kohen cannot kindle the Menorah any time during the day, since the Torah writes there too, "Bein ha'Arbayim"?

(d) Alternatively, we learn from "me'Erev ad Boker 'Ein Lecha Avodah Kesheirah me'Erev ad Boker Ela Zu Bilevad'.
What do we mean by that?

(e) And from where do we know that the second offering of Ketores, which is written in the same Pasuk as the Menorah in Tetzaveh, cannot be brought all day?

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