REVIEW QUESTIONS ON GEMARA AND RASHI
prepared by Rabbi Eliezer Chrysler
Kollel Iyun Hadaf, Jerusalem
Previous daf Zevachim 39
ZEVACHIM 36-40 - Dedicated to the leaders and participants in the Dafyomi
shiurim at the Young Israel of New Rochelle, by Andy & Nancy Neff
(a) How do we reconcile the current Beraisa (Damim ha'Te'unin Yesod ...
Te'unin Kibus ... ') with another Beraisa, which precludes Shirayim and
Haktaras Eimurim from Machsheves P'sul?
(b) Then why does the Tana say 'Te'unin Yesod', seeing as the three Matanos
require placing on the Keren?
(c) But Rav Papa ruled before (regarding those three Matanos) 'Lo Sharya,
ve'Lo Mefagla ve'Lo Ayla le'Gava'i ke'Sofan'.
So how do we re-establish
the earlier Beraisa?
(d) What problem do we then have with the Seifa 've'Damim ha'Nishpachin
le'Amah Ein Te'unin Kibus, ve'Ein Machshavah Mo'eles Bahen, ve'ha'Ma'aleh
Bahen ba'Chutz Patur'? What should the Tana have rather said?
(a) We answer by establishing the author of the Beraisa as Rebbi Nechemyah,
who holds 'Sheyarei ha'Dam she'Hikrivan ba'Chutz, Chayav'.
Answers to questions
So what if he
is? How does this answer the Kashya?
(b) Going back to the Mishnah in Dam Chatas 'min ha'Keren u'min ha'Yesod
Eino Ta'un Kibus', from which Rav Papa extrapolated 'Ha min ha'Ra'uy
le'Keren, Ta'un Kibus' (on which we asked from 'min ha'Yesod ... ', where we
cannot make the same inference).
How does Ravina establish 'min ha'Yesod
... ', to answer this Kashya?
(c) Rav Tachlifa bar Gaza asked Ravina why we cannot interpret the Reisha
too, to mean 'Ra'uy le'Keren' (like the Seifa means 'Ra'uy li'Yesod').
would this interpretation affect Rav Papa?
(d) What did Ravina reply?
(a) The Torah writes in Parshas Vayikra (in connection with the Par He'elam
Davar shel Tzibur) "Ve'asah la'Par Kasher Asah le'Par ha'Chatas".
"Par ha'Chatas" refer to?
(b) What is the problem with this Pasuk?
(c) Why can we not answer that the Hekesh comes to include the burning of
the lobe of the liver and the two kidneys, which the Torah does not mention
by the Par He'elam Davar?
(d) So why doe the Torah write "Ve'asah la'Par ... "?
(a) And what do we learn from "Kein Ya'aseh Lo"?
(b) From the word "(Kein Ya'aseh) le'Par", the Tana includes the Par (of the
Chatas ha'Tzibur) of Yom Kipur.
What does he learn from ...
(c) If the Tana incorporates the Par Kohen Mashi'ach in the current Din (of
Ikuv Matnosav), regarding which Halachos does he include the Se'irei
- ... "(Ka'asher Asah) le'Par"?
- ... "ha'Chatas"?
(d) On the other hand, what does he preclude from the word "(Kein Ya'aseh)
(a) On what grounds does the Tana include Se'irei Avodas-Kochavim, and
preclude the Se'irei Yom-Tov and Rosh Chodesh (and not vice-versa)?
Answers to questions
(b) The Beraisa goes on to preclude the Semichah from deterring the Korbanos
in question, from "Ve'chiper".
What does he preclude from "Ve'nislach"?
(c) Why might we have thought otherwise?
(d) Why does the Tana see fit to include the Haza'os and to preclude
Semichah and Shirayim? why does he not Darshen the other way round?