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1)

(a) What does Resh Lakish learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "ha'Kohen Ha'mechatei Osah Yochlenah"?

(b) How does he reconcile this with the fact that even though only one Kohen sprinkles the blood of a Korban, all the Kohanim eat it?

(c) What nevertheless forces us to interpret "Yochlenah" to 'Yechalkenah' (receives a portion)?

(d) How do we know that a Kohen Katan is permitted to eat Kodshei Kodshim?

(a) How do we then explain the fact that a Ba'al-Mum receives a portion of Kodshim, even though he is not fit to bring it? What do we learn from the Pasuk in Tzav "*Kol Zachar* ba'Kohanim Yochal Osah"?

(b) Why do we prefer to include a Ba'al-Mum from "Kol Zachar" rather than a T'vul-Yom?

(c) On what grounds do we reject the suggestion that we ought to include a T'vul-Yom, because at nightfall, he will automatically become fit to receive a portion?

(d) How does Rav Yosef learn this from the word "Yochlenah"?

(a) Resh Lakish asks whether a Kohen Ba'al-Mum who is Tamei received a portion of Kodshim. Why might we think that he ...

1. ... does?
2. ... does not?

(b) Rabah resolves the She'eilah from a Beraisa concerning a Kohen Gadol Onan, who brings Korbanos, but who may not eat them.
What does the Tana say there that makes the point?

(a) Rav Oshaya asks whether a Tamei Kohen receives a portion of Korbenos Tzibur.
Why must this be speaking about a Korban that is brought when most of the Tzibur is Tahor?

(b) Why might he receive a portion even though he is not permitted to eat?

(c) How do we resolve the She'eilah?

(a) The Mishnah in Chagigah requires a Kohen Onan and a Kohen Mechusar Kipurim to Tovel for Kodesh.
How does Rebbi Ami Amar Rebbi Yochanan reconcile this with our Mishnah, which permits an Onan to touch Kodshim?

(b) Why does he not then require Ha'arev Shemesh (nightfall) as well?

(c) How do we reconcile this with Rabah bar Rav Huna, who maintains that once the Kohen Tovels, his Aninus returns?

(a) What problem does establishing the Mishnah in Chagigah when there was Hesech ha'Da'as, create? What did Rebbi Yustai b'Rebbi Masun Amar Rebbi Yochanan say about Hesech ha'Da'as?

(b) Why will establishing the Mishnah by Hesech ha'Da'as from Tum'as Sheretz only, not solve the problem?

(c) What additional problem do we have, based on the fact that the Tana there requires Tevilah for Kodesh but not for Terumah?

(d) So how does Rebbi Yirmiyah establish the Mishnah in Chagigah to dispense with all these Kashyos? What sort of Hesech ha'Da'as is the Tana referring to?

(a) On what grounds do we object to Rebbi Yirmiyah's explanation?

(b) We overrule the objection however, with a Beraisa, which states that if someone who is walking with a basket (in which there is a metal shovel) on his head claims that he was careful about Tum'ah that renders the basket Tamei, but not the spade?

(a) Why does the spade not render the basket Tamei anyway?

(b) How does Rava establish the case to explain why the spade does not render Tamei the contents of the basket?

(c) What does this Beraisa prove?

(d) When word of all this reached Rebbi Aba bar Mamal, he put a spoke in its wheel, by quoting Rebbi Yochanan Amar Rebbi.
What dual ruling did he issue about a Terumah that is a Shelishi?

(e) What does this prove?

9)

(a) What do we extrapolate from our Mishnah 've'Eino Cholek Le'echol be'Kodshim'?

(b) How does Rebbi Yirmiyah mi'Difti reconcile this with the Mishnah in Pesachim, which permits him to eat the Korban Pesach, but not Kodshim?

(c) Rav Asi establishes the Mishnah in Pesachim when the deceased that was buried on the fourteenth also *died* on the fourteenth, whereas our Mishnah is speaking when he died already on the thirteenth.
What is the difference?

(d) Why, in the former case, did the Chachamim therefore differentiate between the Korban Pesach and other Korbanos?

(a) Who is the author of the principle 'Aninus Laylah (the night after the death) de'Rabbanan'?

(b) What does Rebbi Yehudah say?

(c) What is Rebbi Shimon's proof?

(d) How do we then explain the Beraisa where Rebbi Shimon forbids an Onan to send his Korban through a Sheli'ach?

(a) Rebbi Shimon in another Beraisa, forbids a Kohen Onan to bring a Todah as well as a Shelamim.
Why does he need to include an Olah in the prohibition independently? What do Shelamim and Todah have in common, in this regard, that an Olah does not?

(b) From where do we know that one can fulfill the Mitzvah of Simchah with ...

1. ... a Shelamim?
2. ... a Todah?

(c) Once we know Olah, why would we not automatically include in the prohibition ...

1. ... Bechor, Ma'aser and Pesach?
2. ... Chatas ve'Asham (even after we know Bechor, Ma'aser and Pesach as well)?

(d) From which word do we learn all of these?

(a) What do we still incorporate in the prohibition Of Onan from the Pasuk "ve'Im Im Zevach Shelamim Korbano"?

(b) What problem does this Beraisa create with our interpretation of Rebbi Shimon's previous ruling 'Onan Eino Meshale'ach Korbenosav'?

(c) Rav Chisda answers 'Pesach K'dei Nasvah' (the Tana mentions Pesach together Bechor and Ma'aser, even though it is not really compatible with them).
How does Rav Sheishes interpret 'Pesach' to answer the Kashya?

(d) Having already mentioned 'Shelamim', why does the Tana then find it necessary to add the Chagigah?

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