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1)

(a) Rebbi Zeira explains 'Hayah Shochet, ve'Hitiz es ha'Rosh be'Bas Achas, Im Yesh be'Sakin M'lo Tzavar' to mean 'M'lo Tzavar ve'Chutz le'Tzavar'. What are the two possible explanations of Rebbi Zeira's statement?

(b) How do we resolve the She'eilah from the Seifa 'Hayah Shochet, Ve'hitiz Sh'nei Rashin be'Bas Achas, Im Yesh be'Sakin M'lo Tzavar Echad, Kesheirah'?

(a) Rav Menasheh qualifies the Izmal permitted by our Mishnah.
Which kind of Izmal will the Tana not permit?

(b) On what grounds does he also invalidate ...

1. ... the above Izmal?
2. ... a needle?

(c) How does he try to ...

1. ... prove from the Seifa of our Mishnah 'Aval Im Holich Ve'heivi, Afilu Kol-Shehu' that a leather-maker's needle is Kasher to Shecht with? What advantage does a leather-maker's needle have over a regular one in this regard.
2. ... counter Rav Acha b'rei de'Rav Ivya, who establishes 'Kol-Shehu' by an Izmal?

(d) How does Rav Acha refute this proof?

(e) And how does Rav Menasheh refute Rav Acha b'rei de'Rav Ivya's claim that 'Kol-Shehu' must refer to an Izmal, because otherwise, if a leather-maker's needle was Kasher, why would the Tana need to insert an 'Izmal' in the Mishnah?

(a) What does our Mishnah learn from the Pasuk in Ki Savo "Vezavachta Ve'achalta"? What sort of Shechitah does this Pasuk preclude?

(b) What do we extrapolate from our Mishnah with regard to someone who actually threw the knife and it Shechted in flight?

(c) Who is the author of our Mishnah?

(a) Oshaya Ze'ira de'min Chavraya cites a Beraisa, which discusses a case where someone throws a knife at a wall, and it Shechts in flight.
What does 'Oshaya Ze'ira de'min Chavraya' mean?

(b) Rebbi Nasan validates the Shechitah.
What do the Chachamim say?

(c) After citing this Machlokes, what did Oshaya Ze'ira de'min Chavraya add?

(a) Why did Rava need to establish the Mishnah in the first Perek (regarding a 'Chashu') 've'Chulan she'Shachtu, va'Acherim Ro'in Osan, Shechitasan Kesheirah', like Rebbi Nasan?

(b) Having established the S'tam Mishnah ...

1. ... there like Rebbi Nasan, why did he find it necessary to teach us the same here?
2. ... here like Rebbi Nasan, why did he find it necessary to teach us the same there?

(a) Rav Yehudah Amar Rav permits a Nidah who Toveled be'O'nes to her husband.
What does he say about eating Terumah?

(b) And what does Rebbi Yochanan say?

(c) On what grounds did Rava object to Rav Yehudah's ruling? Why did he think that if the woman is Tahor regarding her husband, then she ought certainly to be Tahor regarding Terumah?

(d) What did Rav Nachman answer him?

(a) What does the Mishnah in Mikva'os say about a wave comprising forty Sa'ah, that detached itself from the sea, and fell on a person and on vessels?

(b) What does Rav Nachman mean when he extrapolates 'Adam Dumya de'Keilim'?

(c) What does he try to prove from there?

(d) On what basis do we refute Rav Nachman's proof, to say instead 'Keilim Dumya de'Adam'?

(a) What problem do we have with establishing the Mishnah by 'Yoshev u'Metzapeh'?

(b) We answer that the Tana needs to teach us that we do not decree on account of a Chardelis shel Geshamim.
What is a 'Chardelis shel Geshamim'?

(c) Why is Tevilah in a Chardelis shel Geshamim not Kasher?

(d) Alternatively, he is teaching us that we do not decree 'Rashin Atu Kipin'.
What does this mean?

(e) What is the source for the prohibition of Toveling in the 'Kipin' of a wave? Why is is it not valid?

9)

(a) If fruit falls into a stream, and a Tamei person stretches his hand into the water to retrieve it, the Mishnah in Machshirin declares his hands Tahor. What does the Tana say about the fruit?

(b) If, on the other hand, he were to stretch his hand into the water in order to wash them, then his hands would be Tahor, but the fruit would be 'be'Chi Yutan'.
Why is that?

(c) What do we learn from this Mishnah?

(a) What did Rava extrapolate from the Beraisa 'Taval le'Chulin Ve'huchzak le'Chulin, Asur le'Ma'aser'? Bearing in mind that 'Huchzak' means 'had Kavanah', what did he try to prove from there?

(b) How did Rav Nachman explain the Beraisa?

(c) And he explained the Beraisa 'Taval ve'Lo Huchzak Ke'ilu La Taval' to mean that he did not have the intention to Tovel for eating Ma'aser.
What did Rava initially think?

(d) How did he himself prove that this was not the case?

(a) Abaye asked Rav Yosef whether these proofs that Chulin does not require Kavanah, do not pose a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan.
Which ruling of Rebbi Yochanan was he referring to?

(b) The latter replied that Rebbi Yochanan holds like Rebbi Yonasan ben Yosef, who discusses the two washings of a Beged that is stricken with Tzara'as.
What is 'Tachboses ...

1. ... Rishonah'?
2. ... Sheniyah'?

(c) What does Rebbi Yonasan ben Yosef learn from the Pasuk in Tazri'a "Ve'chubas Sheinis ... "?

(d) And what does he learn from " ... Ve'taher"?

(a) What does Rav Shimi bar Ashi ask on Rebbi Yochanan from our Mishnah 'Naflah Sakin Ve'shachtah ... Pesulah, based on the inference?

(b) Rava answers that even Rebbi Yonasan ben Yosef will concede that Shechitas Chulin does not need Kavanah.
Why not? What makes Shechitas Chulin different?

(c) How will the Rabbanan counter that?

(d) Rava proves Rebbi Nasan right from the Pasuk in Re'ei "Vezavachta" (in connection with Shechitas Chulin).
What does he prove from there?

(a) When we spoke earlier of Nidah she'Ne'ensah ve'Tavlah, why can we not be referring to where her friends Toveled her against her will?

(b) What does the Mishnah in Nidah say about a Chareshes, a Shotah, a blind Kohenes or one who is demented, eating Terumah?

(c) How does Rav Papa therefore establish the case of 'Nidah she'Ne'ensah', according to ...

1. ... Rebbi Nasan
2. ... the Rabbanan?

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