Previous daf

1)

(a) Our Mishnah forbids the Chametz of a Jew be'Hana'ah after Pesach, but permits that of a non-Jew.
Why does the author not appear to be ...

1. ... Rebbi Yehudah?
2. ... Rebbi Shimon?
3. ... Rebbi Yossi Hagelili?

(b) Rav Acha bar Ya'akov establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Yehudah. Why then, does he restrict the Isur Hana'ah after Pesach to the Chametz belonging to a Jew?

(c) From where does he learn this Chidush and to what extremes does he carry it?

(a) Rava establishes our Mishnah like Rebbi Shimon.
But did we not learn that Rebbi Shimon *permits* deriving benefit from Chametz after Pesach?

(b) How does he explain the statement in our Mishnah 'Mishum she'Ne'emar "Lo Yera'eh Lecha Se'or" '?

(c) How does Rav Acha bar Ya'akov explain it?

(d) In which case - according to Rebbi Yehudah's opinion - is Rav Acha bar Ya'akov lenient, and Rava strict?

(a) 'ha'Ochel Chametz shel Hekdesh be'Mo'ed, Mo'el'; ve'Yesh Omrim, Lo Ma'al'. Rav Acha bar Ya'akov (later in the Sugya) establishes the Yesh Omrim like Rebbi Yehudah.
How does this explain their opinion?

(b) How does this prove that Rav Acha bar Ya'akov retracted from his original opinion?

(c) Rebbi Yochanan establishes the Yesh Omrim like Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah.
What does Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah say, and how does that explain the Yesh Omrim?

(d) How do we reconcile the fact that Rebbi Nechunyah ben Hakanah only exempts one from paying if he sinned be'Meizid, with the fact that Me'ilah is only be'Shogeg?

4)

(a) Rav Yosef establishes the Yesh Omrim like those who forbid the redeeming of Kodshim in order to feed them to one's dogs. According to Rav Acha bar Rava, Rav Yosef establishes even the Tana Kama like them.
Then why does the Tana Kama say 'Mo'el'?

(b) Rav Ashi explains that both Tana'im hold that one cannot redeem Kodshim in order to feed one's dogs, and that even something which eventually causes a monetary loss is not called money.
Why then, does the Tana Kama say that he is Mo'el?

(a) Rav rules that if Chametz fell into other food *during* Pesach, it is forbidden, irrespective of whether it fell into its own kind (Min be'Mino) or into another kind (Min be'Sheino Mino). But if it fell in *after* Pesach, it is only its own kind that becomes forbidden.
Why can Rav not be speaking when sufficient food fell in to add taste?

(b) Why is Rav more stringent by Chametz which fell into other food *during* Pesach than by when it fell into it *after* Pesach?

(c) Why is Rav more stringent by Chametz than by Chelev and blood (which also carry the sentence of Kares, yet he did not decree a Mashehu when they fell into *another* kind because of when they fell into the *same* kind)?

(a) What does Shmuel hold ...

1. ... on Pesach?
2. ... after Pesach?

(b)Why is he more lenient than Rav ...

1. ... on Pesach?
2. ... after Pesach?